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UPSC IAS Prelims 2024 Paper-I GS: Out of 100 questions 20 are from Current Affairs section, 18 from Polity, 16 from Geography, 15 from Environment and so on. For table showing the subject-wise list of questions visit www.aashah.com

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UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2024 Question Papers

General Studies Paper-I (GS) and General Studies Paper-II (CSAT)

Sr. No.

Topic

Sub -Topic

Difficulty Level

Number of Questions

Number of Questions from A A Shah’s Tests

1.

HISTORY

CULTURE

Easy

3

3

Medium

2

1

Difficult

1

 

ANCIENT

Medium

1

 

MEDIEVAL

Medium

1

 

MODERN

Easy

1

1

Total

9

5

2.

GEOGRAPHY

GEOMORPHOLOGY

Easy

1

1

Medium

2

1

CLIMATOLOGY

Easy

7

7

RESOURCES

Easy

1

 

INDIAN RIVERS

Easy

1

1

MAPPING

Easy

1

 

Medium

3

2

Total
16
12

3.

POLITY

INTRODUCTION

Easy

3

3

Medium

1

1

STATES

Medium

1

1

FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS

Easy

2

2

PARLIAMENT

Easy

5

4

Medium

1

1

AMENDMENTS

Easy

1

1

CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES

Medium

1

1

ELECTIONS

Easy

1

1

Medium

1

1

CENTRE – STATE RELATIONS

Easy

1

1

Total

18

17

6.

ECONOMY

MONEY MARKET

Medium

1

 

FINANCIAL MARKET

Easy

1

1

POLICY

Easy

1

1

BANKING

Easy

1

1

Medium

3

1

SECURITIES

Easy

1

1

Medium

2

 

SECTORS

Easy

1

1

ENERGY

Medium

1

 

INFRASTRUCTURE

Easy

1

 

Total136

7.

ENVIRONMENT

POLLUTION

Easy

4

2

Medium

1

 

CLIMATE CHANGE

Difficult

1

 

BIODIVERSITY

Easy

3

1

Medium

3

 

Difficult

3

 

Total

15

3

8.

S&T

IT

Easy

1

 

SPACE

Difficult

2

1

HEALTH

Medium

1

 

Difficult

1

 

ENERGY

Easy

1

 

Medium

1

 

Total
7
1

10.

AGRICULTURE

 

Medium

1

 

11.

CURRENT AFFAIRS

INTERNATIONAL

Easy

4

3

Medium

3

 

INTERNATIONAL  – ORGANISATIONS

Medium

1

 

BILATERAL

Easy

1

1

SOCIAL – SCHEMES

Easy

1

1

Medium

3

3

SOCIAL – HEALTH

Easy

1

1

DEFENCE

Easy

5

4

BOOKS

Easy

1

 

Total
20
13

12.

INDIA YEAR BOOK

 

Difficult

1

 

 Grand Total

100

 57 

 

ANALYSIS BASED ON DIFFICULTY LEVEL 

Sr. No.

Difficulty Level

Number of Questions

Number of Questions from
A A Shah’s Tests

1.

EASY

56

43

2.

MEDIUM

35

13

3.

DIFFICULT

9

1

 

TOTAL
100
57
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UPSC Prelims 2024 Answer Key

Click Here to Download UPSC Prelims 2024 GS Paper-I (GS) Set B Answer Key with explanation

UPSC – CSE (Prelims) 2024

Paper I (GS) – Set B

ANSWER KEY

 

EASY

SOCIAL – HEALTH

1. The total fertility rate in an economy is defined as :

(a) the number of children born per 1000 people in the population in a year.

(b) the number of children born to a couple in their lifetime in a given population.

(c) the birth rate minus death rate.

(d) the average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age.

Ans. (d)

Total fertility rate (TFR) of a population is the average number of children that are born to a woman over her lifetime

Test 22: Indian Economy PRELIMS 2024

Q.  The medium term objective of National Population Policy 2000 called to bring the Total Fertility Rate (TFR) to population replacement level of 2.1 by the year:

(a)  2010        (b) 2015  (c)  2020        (d) 2045

Ans. (a)

The total fertility rate (TFR) of a population is the average number of children that are born to a woman over her lifetime

 MEDIUM

ECONOMY – SECURITIES

2. Consider the following statements :

  1. In India, Non-Banking Financial Companies can access the Liquidity Adjustment Facility window of the Reserve Bank of India.
  2. In India, Foreign Institutional Investors can hold the Government Securities (G-Secs).
  3. In India, Stock Exchanges can offer separate trading platforms for debts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) l and 2 only

3 only

1, 2 and 3

2 and 3 only

Ans. (d)

MEDIUM

ECONOMY – SECURITIES

3. In India, which of the following can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities ?

  1. Insurance Companies
  2. Pension Funds
  3. Retail Investors

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (d)

Government Securities (G Secs) are issued by the government to borrow funds from the general public

  • The Reserve Bank of India issues bonds on behalf of the government of India.
  • In common parlance, government securities with a maturity of less than one year are called treasury bills, and those with longer maturity are called government bonds.

Who can buy government securities?

  • Government securities are available for purchase by various entities, including banks, financial institutions, primary dealers, corporate entities, individuals, and foreign investors.
  • These securities can be bought through auctions conducted by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) or in the secondary market through recognized stock exchanges or the NDS-OM platform.

NDS-OM (Negotiated Dealing System – Order Matching Segment)

  • It is a screen based electronic anonymous order matching system for secondary market trading in Government securities owned by RBI.
  • Presently the membership of the system is open to entities like Banks, Primary Dealers, Insurance Companies, Mutual Funds etc. i.e entities who maintain SGL accounts with RBI.
  • These are Primary Members (PM) of NDS and are permitted by RBI to become members of NDS-OM.

EASY

ECONOMY – SECURITIES

4. Consider the following:

  1. Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF)
  2. Motor vehicles
  3. Currency swap

Which of the above is/are considered financial instruments ?

  • 1 only
  • 2 and 3 only
  • 1, 2 and 3
  • l and 3 only

Ans. (d)

Financial instruments are monetary contracts between parties. They can be created, traded, modified and settled. They can be cash, evidence of an ownership interest in an entity or a contractual right

Common examples of financial instruments include stocks, exchange-traded funds (ETFs), mutual funds, real estate investment trusts (REITs), bonds, derivatives contracts (such as options, futures, and swaps), checks, certificates of deposit (CDs), bank deposits, and loans.

Day 90 Prelims 2024 Economy Security Market

Q. Which of the following are segments/categories of the unorganised money market in India?

1.       Unregulated Non-Bank Financial Intermediaries

2.       Indigenous Bankers

3.       Money Lenders

4.       Exchange-Traded Funds (ETFs)

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a)          1 only

(b)          2 and 3 only

(c)          1, 2 and 3

(d)          l and 3 only

Ans. (c)

ETFs are a type of financial instrument under Mutual Funds that come under the organised money market in India.

EASY

ECONOMY – SECTORS

5. With reference to the sectors of the Indian economy, consider the following pairs :

Economic activity

Sector

1. Storage of agricultural produce

Secondary

2. Dairy farm

Primary

3. Mineral exploration

Tertiary

4. Weaving cloth

Secondary

How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Ans. (b)

Only 2 and 4 are correctly paired.

 

Economic activity

Sector

1.

Storage of agricultural produce

Tertiary

2.

Dairy farm

Primary

3.

Mineral exploration

Primary

4.

Weaving cloth

Secondary

NCERT TEST Economics Class IX : Chp – 2 (People as Resource)

In the context of economic activity, the primary sector includes:

1.      Forestry

2.      Animal Husbandry

3.      Trade and transport

4.      Mining

Select the correct answer using the code given below :                    

(a)   1 only                  

(b)   1 and 3 only

(c)   1, 2 and 3 only

(d)   1, 2 and 4 only

Ans. (d)

The various activities have been classified into three main sectors i.e., primary, secondary and tertiary. 

Primary sector includes agriculture, forestry, animal husbandry, fishing, poultry farming, and mining and quarrying.

Secondary sector includes manufacturing.

Tertiary sector includes trade, transport, communication, banking, education, health, tourism, services, insurance etc.

MEDIUM

ECONOMY – ENERGY

6. Consider the following materials :

  1. Agricultural residues
  2. Corn grain
  3. Wastewater treatment sludge
  4. Wood mill waste

Which of the above can be used as feedstock for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel ?

(a) l and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Ans. (c)

Sustainable aviation fuel (SAF) is an alternative fuel made from non-petroleum feedstocks that reduces emissions from air transportation.

SAF can be produced from non-petroleum-based renewable feedstocks including, but not limited to, the food and yard waste portion of municipal solid waste, woody biomass, fats/greases/oils, and other feedstocks.

EASY

ECONOMY – FINANCIAL MARKET

7. With reference to physical capital in Indian economy, consider the following pairs :

 

Items

Category

1.

Farmer’s plough

Working capital

2.

Computer

Fixed capital

3.

Yarn used by the weaver

Fixed capital

4.

Petrol

Working capital

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Ans. (b)

Only pairs 2 and 4 are correct

 

Items

Category

1.

Farmer’s plough

Fixed capital

2.

Computer

Fixed capital

3.

Yarn used by the weaver

Working capital

4.

Petrol

Working capital

Fixed capital is any kind of real, physical asset that is used repeatedly in the production of a product. Working capital is the cash or other liquid assets that a company utilises to finance day-to-day activities such as payroll and bill payment.

NCERT TEST Economics Class IX : Chp – 1 (The Story of Village Palampur)

Consider the following statements under the physical capital related to the factors of production:

  1. Two items that come under physical capital are fixed capital and working capital.
  2. Under the physical capital, tools, machines and buildings are called working capital.
  3. Under the physical capital, raw materials and money in hand are called fixed capital.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a)   1 and 2 only

(b)   2 and 3 only

(c)   1 only

(d)   All the above

Ans. (c)

Physical capital is an important factor in production. Two items that come under physical capital are fixed capital and working capital.

Tools, machines, buildings can be used in production over many years, and are called fixed capital.

Raw materials and money in hand are called working capital. Unlike tools, machines and buildings, these are used up in production.

EASY

S&T – IT

8. Which one of the following words/phrases is most appropriately used denote “an interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds that can be accessed simultaneously by millions of users, who can exert property rights over virtual items ?

(a) Big data analytics

(b) Cryptography

(c) Metaverse

(d) Virtual matrix

Ans. (c)

  • Metaverse is a loosely defined term referring to virtual worlds in which users represented by avatars interact, usually in 3D and focused on social and economic connection.
  • The term metaverse originated in the 1992 science fiction novel Snow Crash as a portmanteau of “meta” and “universe”.

https://www.newindianexpress.com/xplore/2024/May/03/continuing-relevance-of-intellectual-property-rights-metaverse-nfts

MEDIUM

ECONOMY – BANKING

9. With reference to the rule/rules imposed by the Reserve Bank of India while treating foreign banks, consider the following statements :

  1. There is no minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India.
  2. For wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India, at least 50% of the board members should be Indian nationals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) l only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (b)

Foreign Banks

  • At present, foreign banks have presence in India only through branches.
  • At present, foreign banks, if eligible, are allowed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to set up business in India through a single mode of presence i.e. either branch mode or a wholly owned subsidiary (WOS) mode.
  • The initial minimum paid-up voting equity capital for a WOS shall be Rs. 5 billion.
  • The composition of the board of directors of WOS should be such that not less than 50 per cent directors should be Indian nationals/NRIs/PIOs subject to the condition that one-third of the directors are Indian nationals resident in India;

EASY

ECONOMY – POLICY

10. With reference to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) rules in India, consider the following statements :

  1. CSR rules specify that expenditures that benefit the company directly or its employees will not be considered as CSR activities.
  2. CSR rules do not specify minimum spending on CSR activities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) l only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (a)

Test 27: Current Affairs February 2024 PRELIMS 2024

With reference to the Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR), consider the following statements: 

1.           The Companies Act, 2013 allows companies to spend 1% of their average net profit in the previous three years on CSR activities. 

2.           CSR provisions are applicable to companies with an annual turnover of 1,000 crore and more, or a net worth of Rs. 500 crore and more. 

3.           Non-compliance of CSR provisions has been notified as a criminal offense. 

Which of the above given statements is/are correct? 

(a)   l and 2 only

(b)   3 only

(c)   2 only

(d)   1, 2 and 3

Ans. (c)

Corporate Social Responsibility

•              It is a corporate initiative to assess and take responsibility for the company’s effects on the environment and impact on social welfare. 

•              In India, the concept of CSR is governed by clause 135 of the Companies Act, 2013. 

•              Under the Act, all companies with a net worth of Rs 500 crore or more, a turnover of Rs 1,000 crore or more, or net profit of Rs 5 crore or more, are liable for CSR.

•              Such Companies are required to spend on CSR, in every financial year, at least 2% of their average net profits generated during the 3 immediately preceding financial years

•              Non-compliance of CSR provisions has been notified as a civil offense.

 

DIFFICULT

S&T – SPACE

11. With reference to radioisotope thermoelectric generators (RTGs), consider the following statements :

    1. RTGs are miniature fission reactors.
    2. RTGs are used for powering the onboard systems of spacecrafts.
    3. RTGs can use Plutonium-238, which is a by-product of weapons development.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) l and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (b)

Radioisotope Thermoelectric Generator (RTG)

  • It is a type of nuclear battery that uses an array of thermocouples to convert the heat released by the decay of a suitable radioactive material into electricity by the Seebeck effect.
  • This type of generator has no moving parts and is ideal for deployment in remote and harsh environments for extended periods with no risk of parts wearing out or malfunctioning.
  • RTGs have been used as power sources in satellites, space probes, and uncrewed remote facilities such as a series of lighthouses built by the Soviet Union inside the Arctic Circle.
  • RTGs and fission reactors use very different nuclear reactions.
  • The first RTG launched into space by the United States was SNAP 3B in 1961 powered by 96 grams of plutonium-238.
  • Plutonium-238 is formed in nuclear power reactors from uranium-238 by neutron capture.

DIFFICULT

S&T – SPACE

12. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I : Giant stars live much longer than dwarf stars.

Statement-II : Compared to dwarf stars, giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans. (d)

Giant stars

  • They have a greater rate of the nuclear reactions that light up stars.
  • Massive stars also use up the hydrogen fuel in their core faster, despite starting out with much more of it, meaning they live much shorter lives than dwarf stars.

Day 95 PRELIMS 2024 S&T-Space 

Arrange the following in chronological order of life cycle of stars.

1.           Proto-star

2.           Main sequence star

3.           Red giant

4.           White dwarf

Select the correct answer using codes given below.

(a)   1-2-3-4

(b)   2-1-3-4

(c)   1-2-4-3

(d)   2-1-4-3

Ans. (a)

DIFFICULT

S&T – HEALTH

13. Which one of the following is synthesised in human body that dilates blood vessels and increases blood flow ?

(a) Nitric oxide

(b) Nitrous oxide

(c) Nitrogen dioxide

(d) Nitrogen pentoxide

Ans. (a)

Nitric oxide (NO) has been used for decades in cases of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) as a vasodilator, improving gas exchange in the lungs and allowing the blood to better oxygenate.

Nitrous oxide is a gas used for anesthesia and pain relief.

Nitrogen dioxide is a toxic gas.

Nitrogen pentoxide is a chemical compound.

EASY

DEFENCE

14. Consider the following activities :

  1. Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft
  2. Monitoring of precipitation
  3. Tracking the migration of animals

In how many of the above activities can the radars be used ?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans. (b)

Radar

  • RADAR stands for ‘Radio Detection And Ranging’ and is an active transmission and reception method in the microwave GHz range.
  • It is a system that uses radio waves to determine the distance (ranging), direction and radial velocity of objects relative to the site.
  • Radars are widely used to produce precipitation estimations.
  • Since the 1960s, radar has become a widely-used technique for studying migrating animals.

 

TEST 25: PRELIMS 2021 Current Affairs January 2021

India’s first indigenously developed Polarimetric Doppler Weather Radar (DWR) was installed in-

(a)   Odisha            

(b)   West Bengal   

(c)   Tamil Nadu    

(d)   Meghalaya

Ans. (d)

As a first of its kind in India, indigenously developed Polarimetric Doppler Weather Radar (DWR) was installed in Cherrapunjee, Meghalaya.

EASY

DEFENCE

15. Consider the following aircraft :

  1. Rafael
  2. MiG-29
  3. Tejas MK-1

How many of the above are considered fifth generation fighter aircraft ?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans. (d)

Fifth Generation Fighter Aircraft (FGFA)

  • A fifth-generation fighter is a jet fighter aircraft classification which includes major technologies developed during the first part of the 21st century.
  • It typically includes features like stealth, low-probability-of-intercept radar (LPIR), agile airframes with supercruise performance, advanced avionics features, and highly integrated computer systems
  • Some examples of FGFA are F22 Raptor of USA, Su-57 of Russia, J-20 of China

Dassault Rafale

  • It is a French twin-engine, canard delta wing, multirole fighter aircraft designed and built by Dassault Aviation.
  • It is referred to as an “omnirole” 4.5th generation aircraft by Dassault.

Tejas

  • It is an Indian single-engine, 5 generation delta wing multirole combat aircraft designed by the Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA) and manufactured by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) for the Indian Air Force (IAF) and Indian Navy.

TEST 16: PRELIMS 2021 Current Affairs September 2020

Which of the following is/are correct about the Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA)?

1.       It is an Indian programme to develop a fifth-generation fighter aircraft

2.        It is expected to be produced by a public-private joint venture.

3.       The programme has an aim to start production by 2030.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a)   1 only

(b)   1 and 2 only

(c)   2 and 3 only

(d)   1, 2 and 3

Ans. (b)

The programme has an aim to start production by 2028.

MEDIUM

S&T – HEALTH

16. In which of the following are hydrogels used?

  1. Controlled drug delivery in patients
  2. Mobile air-conditioning systems
  3. Preparation of industrial lubricants

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (d)

Hydrogel

  • It is a three-dimensional network porous structure formed by self-assembly of small or macromolecular polymers.
  • It is a biphasic material, a mixture of porous, permeable solids and at least 10% by weight or volume of interstitial fluid composed completely or mainly by water.

Hydrogel for drug delivery:

  • Injectable hydrogels can be used to carry drugs or cells for applications in tissue regeneration or 3D bioprinting.
  • Hydrogels—used in contact lenses, wound dressings, and diapers—could cool high-power electronics using moisture absorbed from the air.

Hydogels for air-conditioning:

  • Air conditioning hasn’t changed much over the past century – most options are energy hungry and many are noisy and pretty unsightly.
  • But one company has taken inspiration from nature to create an innovative alternative that doesn’t require electricity and in theory isn’t even visible.
  • Using a substance called hydrogel, experts have created walls that absorb moisture to ‘sweat’ – like human skin – and cool the interior of a building.

Hydrogel as lubricant:

  • Hydrogels are polymers, which when bonded to surfaces and wetted, become very effective lubricants.
  • Hydrogels are biocompatible and could make very effective endoscopic lubricants.

 

https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/science/iisc-researchers-develop-hydrogel-that-can-remove-microplastics-from-water/articleshow/109254690.cms?from=mdr

EASY

ENVIRONMENT – POLLUTION

17. Which one of the following is the exhaust pipe emission from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles, powered by hydrogen ?

(a) Hydrogen peroxide

(b) Hydronium

(c) Oxygen

(d) Water vapour

Ans. (d)

Fuel cell electric vehicles (FCEVs) are powered by hydrogen. They are more efficient than conventional internal combustion engine vehicles and produce no harmful tailpipe emissions—they only emit water vapor and warm air.

 

EASY

S&T – ENERGY

18. Recently, the term “pumped-storage hydropower” is actually and appropriately discussed in the context of which one of the following ?

(a) Irrigation of terraced crop fields

(b) Lift irrigation of cereal crops

(c) Long duration energy storage

(d) Rainwater harvesting system

Ans. (c)

Pumped storage hydropower (PSH)

  • It is a type of hydroelectric energy storage.
  • It is a configuration of two water reservoirs at different elevations that can generate power as water moves down from one to the other (discharge), passing through a turbine.
  • The system also requires power as it pumps water back into the upper reservoir (recharge).
  • PSH acts similarly to a giant battery, because it can store power and then release it when needed.

Current Affairs January 2024

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/stage-set-for-laying-foundation-for-two-pumped-storage-hydropower-projects-in-andhra-pradesh/article67776238.ece

MEDIUM

ENVIRONMENT – POLLUTION

19. “Membrane Bioreactors” are often discussed in the context of :

(a) Assisted reproductive technologies

(b) Drug delivery nanotechnologies

(c) Vaccine production technologies

(d) Wastewater treatment technologies

Ans. (d)

Membrane bioreactors

  • They are combinations of membrane processes like microfiltration or ultrafiltration with a biological wastewater treatment process, the activated sludge process.
  • These technologies are now widely used for municipal and industrial wastewater treatment.

EASY

ECONOMY – BANKING

20. With reference to the Indian economy, “Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations” are the instruments of:

(a) Bond market

(b) Forex market

(c) Money market

(d) Stock market

Ans. (c)

A collateralized borrowing and lending obligation (CBLO) is a money market instrument that represents an obligation between a borrower and a lender concerning the terms and conditions of a loan.

Day 80 Prelims 2024 Economy Money Market

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Indian money market?

1.              Trading in this market is done on the discount rate, determined by RBI.

2.              The repo rate of the time announced by the RBI works as the guiding rate for the current discount rate

3.              Borrowings in this market are always supported by collaterals.

4.              In this market, close substitutes of money are also traded.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a)          1 and 2 only

(b)          2 and 4 only

(c)          3 and 4 only

(d)          All the above

Ans. (b)

1 is false. Trading is done on a rate known as discount rate, which is determined by the market

and guided by the availability of and demand for the cash in the day-to-day trading.

2 is true. The repo rate of the time announced by the RBI works as the guiding rate for the current discount rate

3 is false. Borrowings in this market may or may not be supported by collaterals.

4 is true. In the money market the financial assets, which have quick conversion quality into money and carry minimal transaction cost, are also traded. Such financial assets are known as close substitutes for money.

EASY

ECONOMY – INFRASTRUCTURE

21. Consider the following airports :

  1. Donyi Polo Airport
  2. Kushinagar International Airport
  3. Vijayawada International Airport

In the recent past, which of the above have been constructed as Greenfield projects ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) l and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.  (a)

Only 11 greenfield airports have become operational since May 2014 till July 2023, Minister of State for Civil Aviation V.K. Singh replied to a question in the Rajya Sabha.

These are the airports at

  1. Mopa in Goa,
  2. Shirdi in Maharashtra,
  3. Sindhudurg in Maharashtra
  4. Kalaburagi in Karnataka,
  5. Shivamogga in Karnataka
  6. Kushinagar in Uttar Pradesh
  7. Orvakal (Kurnool) in Andhra Pradesh
  8. Durgapur in West Bengal,
  9. Pakyong in Sikkim,
  10. Kannur in Kerala,
  11. Donyi Polo in Arunachal Pradesh.

Current Affairs July 2023

https://epaper.thehindu.com/articleshare?articleurl=https%3A%2F%2Fepaper.thehindu.com%2Fccidist-ws%2Fth%2Fth_chennai%2Fissues%2F45581%2FOPS%2FGEABI4HND.1%2BGM0BI5BOD.1.html

EASY

GEOGRAPHY – CLIMATOLOGY

22. With reference to “water vapour”, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is a gas, the amount of which decreases with altitude.
  2. Its percentage is maximum at the poles.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) l only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (a)

Day 8: Prelims 2024 Geography Atmosphere

Consider the following statement

  1. The amount of water vapour present in the atmosphere increases with altitude
  2. The amount of water vapour present in the atmosphere increases from the equator towards the poles.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)           l only

(b)          2 only

(c)           Both 1 and 2

(d)          Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (d)

The amount of water vapour present in the atmosphere decreases with altitude. 

The amount of water vapour present in the atmosphere decreases from the equator towards the poles.

Source: Fundamentals of Physical Geography (NCERT- Class XI) Chp 8

EASY

GEOGRAPHY – CLIMATOLOGY

23. Consider the following description :

  1. Annual and daily range of temperatures is low.
  2. Precipitation occurs throughout the year.
  3. Precipitation varies between 50cm – 250 cm

What is this type of climate ?

(a) Equatorial climate

(b) China type climate

(c) Humid subtropical climate

(d) Marine West coast climate

Ans. (d)

Equatorial climate precipitation is 150 cm to 1000 cm.

Marine West Coast climate precipitation is 50 cm to 250 cm

PRELIMS 2024 GS Paper I Comprehensive Test 1

Which one of the following is relevant to Koeppen’s ” A ” type of climate?

(a)          High rainfall in all the months

(b)          Mean monthly temperature of the coldest month more than freezing point

(c)          Mean monthly temperature of all the months more than 18o C

(d)          Average temperature for all the months below 10° C

Ans. (c)

Koeppen climate classification scheme 

  • It divides climates into five main climate groups: A (tropical), B (arid), C (temperate), D (continental), and E (polar).
  • The second letter indicates the seasonal precipitation type, while the third letter indicates the level of heat.

Group A: Tropical climates

  • This type of climate has an average temperature of 18 °C  or higher every month of the year, with significant precipitation.

Source  NCERT XI  Fundamentals of Physical Geography Chp. 12, pg. 103.

EASY

GEOGRAPHY – CLIMATOLOGY

24. With reference to “Coriolis force”, which of the following statements is/are correct ?

  1. It increases with increase in wind velocity.
  2. It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) l only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (c)

 

Test 1: Geography PRELIMS 2024

Read the following assertion and reason and then select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Assertion: No cyclones form over the equator.

Reason: The Coriolis force is zero at the equator.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a)          Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

(b)          Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

(c)          Assertion is correct reason is incorrect

(d)          Both Assertion and reason are incorrect.

 

Ans. (a)

 

 

Test 1: Geography PRELIMS 2024

Consider the following statements about winds near the Earth’s surface “

1.      Frictional drag reduces the wind speed.

2.      A reduced wind speed in turn reduces the coriolis effect.

3.      Frictional drag does not affect the pressure gradient.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?

(a)          1 Only

(b)          1 and 2 Only

(c)          2 and 3 Only

(d)          1, 2 and 3

Ans. (d)

Friction reduces wind speed, which in turn reduces the deflection caused by the coriolis force.

 

EASY

GEOGRAPHY – CLIMATOLOGY

25. On June 21 every year, which of the following latitude(s) experience(s) a sunlight of more than 12 hours ?

Equator

 Tropic of Cancer

 Tropic of Capricorn

 Arctic Circle

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 2 and 4

Ans. (d)

NCERT Test Geography Class VI : Chp – 3 (Motions of the Earth)

With reference to solstice, consider the following statements:

1.      In Winter Solstice, on 22nd December the sun’s rays fall vertically at the Tropic of Cancer.

2.      In Summer Solstice, on 21st June the sun’s rays fall vertically at the Tropic of Capricorn.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)          1 only

(b)          2 only                

(c)          Both 1 and 2                 

(d)          Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (d)

Solstice refers to a day with either the longest or the shortest. The two solstice in a year are Winter solstice on December 22 and Summer solstice on June 21.

In Winter Solstice, on 22nd December the sun’s rays fall vertically at the Tropic of Capricorn.

In Summer Solstice, on 21st June the sun’s rays fall vertically at the Tropic of Cancer.

DIFFICULT

ENVIRONMENT – CLIMATE CHANGE

26. One of the following regions has the world’s largest tropical peatland, which holds about three years worth of global carbon emissions from fossil fuels; and the possible destruction of which can exert detrimental effect on the global climate. Which one of the following denotes that region ?

(a) Amazon Basin

(b) Congo Basin

(c) Kikori Basin

(d) Rio de la Plata Basin

Ans. (b)

Peatlands

  • Peatlands are essentially wetland ecosystems in which waterlogging prevents plants from fully decomposing, are very crucial in slowing climate change because of their ability to store carbon.
  • Peatland covers only about 3% of Earth’s land surface but stores about one-third of its soil carbon
  • The Congo Basin’s peatlands are an essential bulwark in the fight against climate change because they contain the largest stock of carbon held in tropical peat in the world, are 15% bigger than previously thought.
  • The Congo Basin peatlands alone contain about 29 billion tons of carbon, equivalent to about three years of worldwide carbon-dioxide emission
  • The Congo Basin is home to the world’s largest tropical peatlands, along with Brazil and Indonesia.
  • The peatlands were mapped for the first time by scientists in 2017, and for the moment they remain relatively untouched.
  • In August 2022, Congo launched a tender round for 30 oil and gas permits, several of which overlap with the peatlands.
  • Congo is also the site of most of the Congo Basin rainforest, the second-largest in the world after the Amazon.

CURRENT AFFAIRS AUGUST 2022

https://www.hindustantimes.com/environment/worlds-largest-tropical-peatlands-bigger-than-size-of-england-survey-101659516430285.html

EASY

ENVIRONMENT – POLLUTION

27. With reference to perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) that are used in making many consumer products, consider the following statements:

  1. PFAS are found to be widespread in drinking water, food and food packaging materials.
  2. PFAS are not easily degraded in the environment.
  3. Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead to bioaccumulation in animal bodies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (d)

Day 5: Prelims 2024 Environment 2. Functions of Ecosystem

Consider the following statements:

1.      Bioaccumulation is increase in concentration of a pollutant from the environment to the first organism in a food chain.

2.      Biomagnification is increase in concentration of a pollutant from one link in a food chain to another.

3.      Eutrophication is when a water body becomes enriched with nutrients.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)          2 and 3 only

(b)          1 and 3 only

(c)          1 and 2 only

(d)          All the above

Ans. (d)

 

DIFFICULT

ENVIRONMENT – BIODIVERSITY

28. Consider the following:

  1. Carabid beetles
  2. Centipedes
  3. Flies
  4. Termites
  5. Wasps

Parasitoid species are found in how many of the above kind of organisms ?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(c) Only four

(d) All five

Ans. (b)

Parasitoid

  • In evolutionary ecology, a parasitoid is an organism that lives in close association with its host at the host’s expense, eventually resulting in the death of the host.
  • Parasitoidism is one of six major evolutionary strategies within parasitism, distinguished by the fatal prognosis for the host, which makes the strategy close to predation.
  • Parasitoids eventually kill the host they feed on, as opposed to parasites like fleas and ticks, which typically feed upon hosts without killing them.
  • Parasitoids are found in a variety of taxa across the insect superorder.
  • Most parasitoids are either wasps and bees (Hymenoptera) or flies (Diptera), although a few species of beetles, twisted wing insects, moths, and other insects have been identified as parasitoids.

EASY

ENVIRONMENT – BIODIVERSITY

29. Consider the following plants :

  1. Groundnut
  2. Horse-gram
  3. Soybean

How many of the above belong to the pea family?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans. (c)

Leguminosae

  • The Fabaceae or Leguminosae, commonly known as the legume, pea, or bean family, are a large and agriculturally important family of flowering plants.
  • The family Fabaceae includes a number of plants that are common in agriculture including Glycine max (soybean), Phaseolus (beans), Pisum sativum (pea), Cicer arietinum (chickpeas or grams), Vicia faba (broad bean), Medicago sativa (alfalfa), Arachis hypogaea (peanut), Ceratonia siliqua (carob), Trigonella foenum-graecum (fenugreek), and Glycyrrhiza glabra (liquorice).

EASY

ENVIRONMENT – BIODIVERSITY

30. Consider the following statements :

Statement-I: The Indian Flying Fox is placed under the “vermin” category in the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.

Statement-II : The Indian Flying Fox feeds on the blood of other animals.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans. (c)

Indian flying fox

  • Also known as fruit bats, the nectar and fruit-eating flying fox (Pteropus giganteus) is generally considered a vermin as they raid orchards.
  • It had a similar official status under the Schedule V of the Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972 until it was put on the Schedule II list, entailing a higher degree of protection.
  • As a keystone species causing seed dispersals of many plants in tropical systems, the flying fox has fascinated zoologists over the years.
  • It survives only on fruits

CURRENT AFFAIRS AUGUST 2023

Flying fox bats for vigilance while day-roosting, finds study

https://epaper.thehindu.com/articleshare?articleurl=https%3A%2F%2Fepaper.thehindu.com%2Fccidist-ws%2Fth%2Fth_delhi%2Fissues%2F47535%2FOPS%2FGBUBK36UO.1%2BGFHBK37PG.1.html

CURRENT AFFAIRS MAY 2020

Which of the following may spread Nipah Virus?

1.          By consuming fruits eaten by infected bats.

2.          By coming in direct contact with infected bats.

3.          By coming in direct contact with infected pigs.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a)          1 only

(b)          1 and 2 only

(c)          2 and 3 only

(d)          1, 2 and 3

Nipah virus

·           It can be transmitted to humans from animals (such as bats or pigs), or contaminated foods and can also be transmitted directly from human-to-human.

·           Fruit bats of the Pteropodidae family are the natural host of Nipah virus.

EASY

GEOGRAPHY – CLIMATOLOGY

31. Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation.

Statement-II: Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave radiation.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans. (d)

Day 10: Prelims 2024 Climate

Consider the following statements about greenhouse effect:

1.      The atmosphere transmits the incoming solar radiation but do not absorb the vast majority of long wave radiation emitted upwards by the earth’s surface.

2.      The gases that absorb long wave radiation are called greenhouse gases.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)          1 only

(b)          2 only                

(c)          Both 1 and 2                 

(d)          Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (b)

The atmosphere transmits the incoming solar radiation but absorbs the vast majority of long wave radiation emitted upwards by the earth’s surface. 

The insolation received by the earth is in short waves forms and heats up its surface. The earth after being heated itself becomes a radiating body and it radiates energy to the atmosphere in long wave form. This energy heats up the atmosphere from below. This process is known as terrestrial radiation.

Source: NCERT Fundamentals of Physical Geography (NCERT- Class XI) Chp 9 Solar Radiation, Heat Balance and Temperature

EASY

GEOGRAPHY – CLIMATOLOGY

32. Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared to poles.

Statement-II: At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans. (a)

NCERT Test Geography Class XI : Chp – 8 (Composition and Structure of Atmosphere)

Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Troposphere?

1.            The thickness of the troposphere is less over the poles as compared to the equator.

2.            The Tropopause does not allow the moisture to leave the Troposphere because of temperature inversion.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a)          1 only

(b)          2 only                

(c)          Both 1 and 2                 

(d)          Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (c)

  • The troposphere is thicker at the equator than at the poles because the equator is warmer.
  • The convection currents of air expand the thickness of the troposphere (atmosphere) at poles.
  • Thus the simple reason is thermal expansion of the atmosphere at the equator and thermal contraction near the poles.
  • Also, the rotation of the earth causes centrifugal force which is strongest near the equator and pushes the atmosphere to greater heights.
  • The thickness of the troposphere also varies with season.
  • The troposphere is thicker in the summer and thinner in the winter all around the planet.
  • At the poles in winter, the atmosphere is uniformly very cold and the troposphere cannot be distinguished from other layers.

Source: NCERT Fundamentals of Physical Geography (NCERT- Class XI) Chp 8

NCERT Test Geography Class XI : Chp – 8 (Composition and Structure of Atmosphere)

Why is the thickness of the troposphere greatest at the equator?

(a)          Heat is transported to great heights by strong convection currents.

(b)          High concentration of water vapour and dust particles at equator                   

(c)          Thickness of ozone layer above equator is greater      

(d)          Lesser concentration of oxygen at the poles

Ans. (a)

Source: NCERT Fundamentals of Physical Geography (NCERT- Class XI) Chp 8

EASY

GEOGRAPHY – GEOMORPHOLOGY

33. Consider the following :

  1. Pyroclastic debris
  2. Ash and dust
  3. Nitrogen compounds
  4. Sulphur compounds

How many of the above are products of volcanic eruptions ?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Ans. (d)

NCERT Test Geography Class XI : Chp – 3 (Interior of the Earth)

Which of the following gases are released during a volcanic eruption?

1.  Nitric Oxide

2. Carbon Dioxide

3. Carbon Monoxide

4. Sulphur dioxide

5. Argon

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

2 & 4 Only

2, 3 & 4 Only

2, 3, 4 & 5 Only

1, 2 ,3 ,4 and 5

Ans. (d)

The material that reaches the ground during a volcanic eruption are lava flows, pyroclastic debris, volcanic bombs, ash and dust and gases such as nitrogen compounds, sulphur compounds and minor amounts of chlorine, hydrogen and argon.

 Source: NCERT Fundamentals of Physical Geography (NCERT- Class XI) Chp 3 Interior of the Earth

EASY

GEOGRAPHY – CLIMATOLOGY

  1. Which of the following is/are correct inference/inferences from isothermal maps in the month of January ?
  2. The isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent.
  3. The presence of cold ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift make the North Atlantic Ocean colder and the isotherms bend towards the north.

Select the answer using the code given below :

  • 1 only
  • 2 only
  • Both 1 and 2
  • Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (a)

The presence of warm ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift make the North Atlantic Ocean colder and the isotherms bend towards the north.

Day 8: Prelims 2024 Geography Atmosphere

The isotherms are more or less parallel to the latitudes in the southern hemisphere when compared to the variations in the northern hemisphere. This is essentially due to:

(a) Presence of large water bodies in the southern hemisphere

(b) Alternate presence of land and water bodies in the southern hemisphere.

(c) The thermal equator always lies in the northern hemisphere

(d)  Temperature inversion is more pronounced in the southern hemisphere.

Ans. (a)

In the Northern Hemisphere, the presence of land and ocean causes a variation in temperature while in the Southern Hemisphere there is only water. Thus, temperature variation is less and isotherms are almost straight in the Southern Hemisphere.

Example: In January the isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent.

This can be seen on the North Atlantic Ocean.

The presence of warm ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic drift, make the Northern Atlantic Ocean warmer and the isotherms bend towards the north.

Source: NCERT Fundamentals of Physical Geography (NCERT- Class XI) Chp 9 Solar Radiation, Heat Balance and Temperature

EASY

GEOGRAPHY – CLIMATOLOGY

35. Which of the following countries are well known as the two largest cocoa producers in the world ?

(a) Algeria and Morocco

(b) Botswana and Namibia

(c) Côte d’Ivoire and Ghana

(d) Madagascar and Mozambique

Ans. (c)

About 70 percent of the world’s cocoa beans come from four West African countries: Ivory Coast, Ghana, Nigeria and Cameroon.

The Ivory Coast and Ghana are by far the two largest producers of cocoa, accounting for more than 50 percent of the world´s cocoa.

EASY

GEOGRAPHY – INDIAN RIVERS

36. With reference to the Himalayan rivers joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj from West to East, which one of the following sequences is correct ?

(a) Ghaghara – Gomati-Gandak –Kosi

(b) Gomati- Ghaghara -Gandak –Kosi

(c) Ghaghara -Gomati Kosi -Gandak

(d) Gomati -Ghaghara – Kosi-Gandak

Ans. (b)

Day 17: Prelims 2024 Geography India Drainage

Which of the following are the right bank tributaries of ganga?

1. Yamuna

2. Chambal

3. Banas

4. Gandak

5. Ramganga

6. Son

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:-

(a)          2, 3, 4 & 6 only

(b)          1, 2, 3 & 6 only

(c)          1, 3 & 6 only

(d)          3 & 4 only

Ans. (b)

Yamuna, Chambal, Banas, Sind, Betwa, Son & Ken are the major right bank tributaries of Ganga.

Ramganga, Gomati, Ghaghara, Gandak, Kosi & Mahananda are the major left bank tributaries of Ganga

Source: NCERT India: Physical Environment (NCERT- Class XI) Chp 3 Drainage

MEDIUM

GEOGRAPHY – GEOMORPHOLOGY

37. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Rainfall is one of the reasons for weathering of rocks.

Statement-II: Rain water contains carbon dioxide in solution.

Statement-III: Rain water contains atmospheric oxygen.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I

(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement-I

(d) Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct

Ans. (a)

Rain is due to condensation of water droplets in the atmosphere. It does not contain any dissolved salts like ordinary water. Therefore rain water can dissolve more amount of oxygen than ordinary water. Moreover rain water is in contact with atmospheric air. Hence, it contains more percentage of oxygen.

Chemical weathering describes the process of chemicals in rainwater making changes to the minerals in a rock. Carbon dioxide from the air is dissolved in rainwater, making it slightly acidic. A reaction can occur when the rainwater comes into contact with minerals in the rock, causing weathering.

MEDIUM

GEOGRAPHY – MAPPING

38. Consider the following countries:

  1. Finland
  2. Germany
  3. Norway
  4. Russia

How many of the above countries have a border with the North Sea?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Ans. (b)

MEDIUM

GEOGRAPHY – MAPPING

39. Consider the following information:

 

Waterfall

Region

River

1.

Dhuandhar

Malwa

Narmada

2.

Hundru

Chota Nagpur

Subarnarekha

3.

Gersoppa

Western Ghats

Netravati

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans. (a)

Only pair 2 is correct

 

Waterfall

Region

River

1.

Dhuandhar

Jabalpur

Narmada

2.

Hundru

Chota Nagpur

Subarnarekha

3.

Gersoppa

Western Ghats

Sharavathi

NCERT Test Geography Class VI : Chp – 6 (Major Landforms of the Earth)

Identify the waterfalls of plateau areas from the following waterfalls:

1.      Hundru falls

2.      Jog falls

3.      Shivanasamudra falls

4.      Dhuandhar falls

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a)          1 only

(b)          2 and 3 only

(c)          1 and 2 only

(d)          3 and 4 only

Ans. (c)

  • In the plateau areas, there may be several waterfalls as the river falls from a great height. The Hundru falls in the Chhota nagpur plateau on the river Subarnarekha and the Jog falls (Gersoppa falls) in Karnataka on the Sharavathi river are examples of such waterfalls.
  • The Jog falls is the highest waterfall in India.
  • Shivanasamudra falls in Karnataka is located on Kaveri river and Dhuandhar falls in Jabalpur district of Madhya Pradesh is located on Narmada river.

Source: Geography Class VI : Chp – 6 (Major Landforms of the Earth)

MEDIUM

GEOGRAPHY – GEOMORPHOLOGY

40. Consider the following information:

 

Region

Name of the mountain range

Type of mountain

1.

Central Asia

Vosges

Fold mountain

2.

Europe

Alps

Block mountain

3.

North America

Appalachian

Fold mountain

4.

South America

Andes

Fold mountain

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) Only one                            (b) Only two

(c) Only three                          (d) All four

Ans. (b)

 

Region

Name of the mountain range

Type of mountain

1.

Europe

Vosges

Block mountain

2.

Europe

Alps

Fold mountain

3.

North America

Appalachian

Fold mountain

4.

South America

Andes

Fold mountain

NCERT Test Geography Class VI : Chp – 6 (Major Landforms of the Earth)

Consider the following statements:

1.             The Rhine valley and the Vosges mountain are examples of the fold mountain system.

2.             Horsts and graben is landform feature of the block mountain.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)          1 only

(b)          2 only

(c)          Both 1 and 2

(d)          Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (b)

The Rhine valley and the Vosges mountain are examples of block mountain system.

There are three types of mountains-

I.   Fold Mountains:

  • The Himalayan Mountains and the Alps are young fold mountains with rugged relief and high conical peaks. 
  • The Aravali range in India is one of the oldest fold mountain systems in the world. The range has considerably worn down due to the processes of erosion. 
  • The Appalachians in North America and the Ural mountains in Russia have rounded features and low elevation. They are very old fold mountains.

II.  Block Mountains

  • The Rhine valley and the Vosges mountain in Europe are examples of block mountains

III. Volcanic Mountains

  • Mt.Kilimanjaro in Africa and Mt.Fujiyama in Japan are examples of volcanic mountains

Source: Geography NCERT Class VI : Chp – 6 (Major Landforms of the Earth)

MEDIUM

ENVIRONMENT – BIODIVERSITY

41. The organisms “Cicada, Froghopper and Pond skater” are:

(a) Birds

(b) Fish

(c) Insects

(d) Reptiles

Ans. (c)

CURRENT AFFAIRS 22 October 2023

Periodical cicada emergence disrupts food webs

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/commonly-found-cicada-species-sheds-its-foreign-tag-to-embrace-an-indian-identity/article67087350.ece

EASY

ENVIRONMENT – POLLUTION

42. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Many chewing gums found in the market are considered source of environmental pollution

Statement-II: Many chewing gums contain plastic as gum base.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans. (a)

Chewing gum has three main components that make up its gum bases: resin, wax, and elastomer. Resin (ex. terpene) is the main chewable portion. Wax softens the gum. Elastomers add flexibility.

DIFFICULT

ENVIRONMENT – BIODIVERSITY

43. Consider the following pairs:

 

Country

Animal found in its natural habitat

1.

Brazil

Indri

2.

Indonesia

Elk

3.

Madagascar

Bonobo

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans. (d)

 

Country

Animal found in its natural habitat

1.

Madagascar

Indri

2.

North America and Central and East Asia

Elk

3.

Congo, Central America

Bonobo

Indri

  • The indri, also called the babakoto, is one of the largest living lemurs native to Madagascar.
  • It is a diurnal tree-dweller, monogamous and lives in small family groups, moving through the canopy, and is herbivorous, feeding mainly on leaves but also seeds, fruits, and flowers.
  • The groups are quite vocal, communicating with other groups by singing, roaring and other vocalisations.
  • Besides humans, it is the only mammal found that can use rhythm.

Elk

  • The elk or wapiti, is the second largest species within the deer family, Cervidae, and one of the largest terrestrial mammals in its native range of North America and Central and East Asia.

Bonobo

  • The bonobo, also historically called the pygmy chimpanzee, are native to Congo region of Central America.

MEDIUM

INTERNATIONAL ORGANISATIONS

44. Consider the following statements regarding World Toilet Organization:

  1. It is one of the agencies of the United Nations.
  2. World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day and World Toilet College are the initiatives of this organization, to inspire action to tackle the global sanitation crisis.
  3. The main focus of its function is to grant funds to the least developed countries and developing countries to achieve the end of open defecation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 2 and 3

Ans. (a)

CURRENT AFFAIRS 17 November 2023

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1977601

World Toilet Organization

  • It is a global non-profit organization whose goal is to improve toilet and sanitation conditions worldwide.
  • It was founded in 2001 with 15 members and has now grown to 151 member organizations in 53 countries.
  • It is also the organizer of the World Toilet Summit, the Urgent Run and initiated the United Nations World Toilet Day.
  • It started the World Toilet College (WTC) in 2005 as a social enterprise in Singapore, to address the gap in education and training around sanitation topics.

World Toilet Day

  • It is celebrated on 19th November every year.
  • It aims to help break taboos around toilets and make sanitation for all a global development priority.
  • The United Nations also officially recognizes this day due to the need to raise awareness about the world’s sanitation crisis
  • Dr. Jack Sim, Founder, World Toilet Organisation was present in Delhi for World Toilet Day 2023.
  • He shared the global experience of managing public toilets and basic issue involved in public toilets and summarised it through ABC: Architecture, Behavior, Cleaning.

DIFFICULT

ENVIRONMENT – BIODIVERSITY

45. Consider the following statements:

  1. Lions do not have a particular breeding season.
  2. Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar.
  3. Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by scent marking.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (a)

  • Lions do not have a particular breeding season. Lions do not mate at a specific time of year, and the females are polyestrous, meaning they can come into heat multiple times a year.
  • Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar because they have a one-piece hyoid bone, unlike lions, tigers, leopards, and jaguars, which have a two-piece hyoid bone that allows them to roar.
  • Male leopards do proclaim their territory by scent marking, using methods such as spraying urine, clawing trees, and rubbing their cheeks against objects.

MEDIUM

AGRICULTURE

46.  Which one of the following is the correct description of “100 Million Farmers”?

  • It is a platform for accelerating the transition towards food and water systems that are net-zero (carbon), nature-positive and that aims to increase farmer resilience.
  • It is an international alliance and a network of individuals and farming organisations interested in supporting and strengthening the development of the organic animal husbandry.
  • It is a digital platform fully integrated with service providers and built on blockchain that lets buyers, sellers and third parties trade fertilizers quickly and securely.
  • It is a platform with the mission of encouraging the farmers to form Farmer Product Organisations or Agribusiness Consortiums, thus facilitating the access to global open markets to sell their products.

Ans. (a)

100 Million Farmers

  • It is an initiative of World Economic Forum (WEF).
  • It supports a global agenda for the adoption of regenerative agriculture and climate adaptation practices at the farm level.
  • It is a platform supporting private and public leaders to position food and farmers as central pillars on the global climate and nature agenda, and accelerate collective action to scale climate-and nature-friendly agricultural practices.

MEDIUM

S&T – ENERGY

47. Consider the following:

  1. Battery storage
  2. Biomass generators
  3. Fuel cells
  4. Rooftop solar photovoltaic units

How many of the above are considered “Distributed Energy Resources” ?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Ans. (d)

Distributed energy resources (DER)

  • It refers to often smaller generation units that are located on the consumer’s side of the meter.
  • Examples of distributed energy resources that can be installed include:
  1. roof top solar photovoltaic units
  2. wind generating units
  • battery storage
  1. batteries in electric vehicles used to export power back to the grid
  2. combined heat and power units, or tri-generation units that also utilise waste heat to provide cooling
  3. biomass generators, which are fuelled with waste gas or industrial and agricultural by-products.
  • open and closed cycle gas turbines
  • reciprocating engines (diesel, oil)
  1. hydro and mini-hydro schemes
  2. fuel cells.

MEDIUM

ENVIRONMENT – BIODIVERSITY

48. Which one of the following shows a unique relationship with an insect that has coevolved with it and that is the only insect that can pollinate this tree?

(a) Fig

(b) Mahua

(c) Sandalwood

(d) Silk cotton

Ans. (a)

Fig wasp is the only insect that can pollinate fig tree. This relationship is a classic example of coevolution, where both species have evolved together to become mutually dependent.

MEDIUM

ENVIRONMENT – BIODIVERSITY

49. Consider the following:

  1. Butterflies
  2. Fish
  3. Frogs

How many of the above have poisonous species among them?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans. (c)

The Monarch butterfly is poisonous to birds, but they are not dangerous to humans.

Species of puffer fish (the family Tetraodontidae) are the most poisonous in the world, and the second most poisonous vertebrate after the golden dart frog.

EASY

ENVIRONMENT – BIODIVERSITY

50. Consider the following:

  1. Cashew
  2. Papaya
  3. Red sanders

How many of the above trees are actually native to India ?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans. (a)

Cashew is native to South America

Papaya is native to Central America

Red Sanders (also known as Red Sandalwood) is native to Andhra Pradesh.

 

Current Affairs Test – Environment – Biodiversity

Consider the following statements regarding Red Sanders.

1.      Red Sanders is a flora-species that is endemic to a distinct tract of forests in Eastern Ghats region of Andhra Pradesh.

2.      Red Sanders is also listed in Appendix-II of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wildlife Fauna and Flora (CITES).

3.      Operation Rakth Chandan is related to surveillance of export of Red Sanders.

4.      The export of Red Sanders from India is prohibited as per the Foreign Trade Policy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)          1, 2 and 3 only

(b)          2, 3 and 4 only

(c)          1 and 2 only

(d)          All the above

 

Ans. (d)

Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) had recently recovered 14.63 MT of Red Sanders. Intelligence was developed by DRI that red sanders logs were concealed in an export consignment declared to contain “assorted toiletries”, for being smuggled out of the country. Accordingly, Operation Rakth Chandan was launched and close surveillance was kept on the suspect export consignment.

Red Sanders is a flora-species that is endemic to a distinct tract of forests in Eastern Ghats region of Andhra Pradesh and fall under ‘endangered list’ in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List. Red Sanders is also listed in Appendix-II of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wildlife Fauna and Flora (CITES). Its rich hue and therapeutic properties are responsible for its high demand across Asia, particularly China, for use in cosmetics, medicinal products and high-end furniture/woodcraft. The export of Red Sanders from India is prohibited as per the Foreign Trade Policy.

Day 65 Prelims 2024 Modern History Chp 3 (Prev Yrs Qs)

Which one of the following groups of plants was domesticated in the ‘New World’ and introduced into the ‘Old World’ (UPSC CSE 2019)

(a)           Tobacco, cocoa, and rubber

(b)           Tobacco, cotton and rubber

(c)           Cotton, coffee and sugarcane

(d)           Rubber, coffee and wheat

Ans. (a)

Potatoes, tomatoes, corn (maize), beans, squash, chili, cacao, and vanilla are the “magic eight” ingredients that were found and used only in the Americas before 1492. They were taken via the Columbian Exchange back to the Old World, dramatically transforming the cuisine there.

Other new world plants include: tobacco, rubber, sweet potato, sunflower, avocado, custard apple, guava, papaya, pumpkin, cashew, peanut, etc.

Note: Cacao is the raw, unprocessed version of cocoa.

EASY

CURRENT AFFAIRS – INTERNATIONAL

51. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: There is instability and worsening situation in the Sahel region.

Statement-II: There have been military takeover/coups d’état in several countries of the Sabel region in the recent past.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-l and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct., but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-l is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans. (a)

Test 12 Current Affairs September 2023 PRELIMS 2024

Consider the following countries :

1. Mauritania

2. Sudan

3. Niger

4. Gabon

5. Mali

6. Burkina Faso

How many of the above lie in the Sahel region and have witnessed coups recently?

3 only

4 only

5 only

All the above

Ans. (a)

Sudan, Niger, Mali and Burkina Faso have witnessed coups recently.

Sahel is the transition zone between the more humid Sudanian savannas to its south and the drier Sahara to the north.

12 African countries fall in this region including parts of (from west to east) Senegal, Mauritania, Mali, Burkina Faso, Algeria, Niger, Nigeria, Chad, Sudan, South Sudan and Eritrea.

EASY

CURRENT AFFAIRS – BILATERAL

52. Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : India does not import apples from the United States of America.

Statement-II: In India, the law prohibits the import of Genetically Modified food without the approval of the competent authority.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans. (d)

CURRENT AFFAIRS September 2023

Kashmir Valley’s growers are anxious as import duty is relaxed on American apples

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/kashmir-valleys-growers-are-anxious-as-import-duty-is-relaxed-on-american-apples/article67295732.ece

The Union government’s decision to relax 20% customs duty on apples imported from the U.S. at the recently concluded G-20 summit left orchardists in the Kashmir Valley jittery. 

EASY

POLITY – PARLIAMENT

53. With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lak Sabha under consideration

  1. He/She shall not preside.
  2. He/She shall not have the right to speak.
  3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (a)

While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lak Sabha under consideration

He/She shall not preside

He/She shall have the right to speak.

He/She shall be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance; and not casting vote in case of a tie.

Test 7: Indian Polity Part 1 PRELIMS 2024

Consider the following statements regarding removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha:

1.     The motion for removal of the Speaker can be considered only if it is supported by atleast 20 members.

2.     The resolution for the removal of the Speaker requires to be passed by absolute majority.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a)   1 only

(b)   2 only

(c)   Both 1 and 2

(d)   Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (b)

  • The motion for removal of the Speaker can be considered only if it is supported by atleast 50 members.
  • When a resolution for the removal of the Speaker in under consideration of the House, he cannot preside at the sittings of the House, though he may be present.
  • He can speak and take part in proceedings of the House at such a time and vote in the first instance, though not in the case of equality of votes.

EASY

POLITY – PARLIAMENT

54. With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements :

  1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.
  2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
  3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only                     (b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3                   (d) 3 only

Ans. (b)

Indian Polity Part 1 PRELIMS 2024

In the event of dissolution of the Lok Sabha :

1. any bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses.

2. any bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses.

3. any bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, but not passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse

4. a bill passed by both the houses but pending for Presidential assent lapses

5. if the President has notified joint sitting for a bill before dissolution of the house, the bill does not lapse.

Select the correct answer from the codes given:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only

Ans. (b)

In the event of dissolution of the Lok Sabha, bill passed by both the houses but pending for Presidential assent does not lapse

EASY

POLITY – PARLIAMENT

55. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements :

  1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
  2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session.
  3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) l only                      (b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3                   (d) 3 only

Ans. (c)

Prorogation of a House by the President of India requires the advice of the Council of Ministers.

Day 33: Prelims 2024 Polity President

Consider the following

1. Summoning of the Parliament

2. Prorogation of the Parliament

3. Dissolution of the Parliament

Which of the above are legislative duties of the president?

2 and 3 only

3 only

1 and 2 only

All the above

Ans. (c)

The President can dissolve only the Lok Sabha and not the Rajya Sabha.

The President cannot dissolve the entire Parliament.

Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India on the advice of the Council of Ministers, except in extraordinary circumstances.

EASY

CURRENT AFFAIRS – INTERNATIONAL

56. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The European Parliament approved The Net-Zero Industry Act recently.

Statement-II: The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore aims to develop all of its own clean technology by that time.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans. (c)

The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2050 and therefore aims to develop all of its own clean technology by that time.

CURRENT AFFAIRS PRELIMS 2021

Consider the following statements.

1.         The European Union aims to set a target of zero net greenhouse gas emissions by 2050.

2.         Under the 2015 Paris climate change treaty, the EU pledged to reduce its carbon emissions by 40% below 1990 levels by 2030.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)          1 only

(b)          2 only

(c)          Both 1 and 2

(d)          Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (c)

EASY

CURRENT AFFAIRS – INTERNATIONAL

57. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Recently, Venezuela has achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis and succeeded in preventing its people from fleeing/emigrating to other countries.

Statement-II: Venezuela has the world’s largest oil reserves.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans. (d)

Test 3: Current Affairs June 2023 PRELIMS 2024

Who among the following are members of Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)

1. Algeria

2. Congo

3. Gabon

4. Iraq 

5. Venezuela

Select the correct option from the codes given below:

(a)          1 and 4 only

(b)          1, and 5 only                 

(c)          1, 2, 3 and 4 only          

(d)          All the above

Ans.  (d)

MEDIUM

CURRENT AFFAIRS – SOCIAL – SCHEMES

58. With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements:

  1. To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding.
  2. Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitised.
  3. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) l and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) l and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (d)

CURRENT AFFAIRS December 2023

Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme (DILRMP)

  • It was earlier known as National Land Record Modernization Programme, which has been revamped and converted as a Central Sector Scheme with effect from 1st April, 2016 with 100% funding by the Centre.
  • Its achievements include:
  1. 08 per cent Record of Rights (RoR) have been completed (6,25,062 villages out of total 6,57,396 villages in the country),
  2. 02 percent Cadastral Maps have been digitized
  3. 95 per cent Computerization of Registration completed
  4. 48 per cent Integration of Sub Registrar offices(SROs) with Land Records have been completed
  • Government has approved extension of DILRMP for a period of five years i.e 2021-22 to 2025-26.
  • Two new components have been added to DILRMP:
  1. Consent –based integration of Aadhaar number with the land record database
  2. Computerization of Revenue Courts and their integration with land records
  • Government with the technical support of Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) Pune, has undertaken an initiative to transliterate the Records of Rights available in local language to any of the 22 Schedule VIII languages of the Constitution.

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1989671

MEDIUM

CURRENT AFFAIRS – SOCIAL – SCHEMES

59. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan’, consider the following statements:

  1. This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility.
  2. Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialties can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) l only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither l nor 2

Ans. (b)

Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan does not provide six months of post-delivery healthcare services.

CURRENT AFFAIRS TEST December 2022

Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan?

1. A quality maternal health services are envisaged to be provided as part of Antenatal Care.

2. A minimum package of antenatal care services is to be provided to the beneficiaries on the 15th day of every month.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Ans. (a)

A minimum package of antenatal care services is to be provided to the beneficiaries on the 9th day of every month.

Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA)

·                It was launched in 2016.

·                It aims to provide fixed-day, free of cost, assured, comprehensive and quality antenatal care on the 9th day of every month universally to all pregnant women in their 2nd / 3rd trimesters of pregnancy, at designated public health facilities by Obstetricians/Medical officers.

·                The programme also invites active participation from private practitioners on a voluntary basis.

MEDIUM

CURRENT AFFAIRS – SOCIAL – SCHEMES

60. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements:

  1. The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme is 21 to 40 years.
  2. Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary.
  3. Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of 3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years.
  4. Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1,2 and 4

Ans. (b)

Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana

  • It was launched in February 2019.
  • The scheme is meant for old age protection and social security of Unorganised Workers (UW).
  • Eligibilty: Entry age between 18 and 40 years and Monthly Income Rs 15000 or below.
  • It is a voluntary and contributory pension scheme, under which the subscriber would receive a minimum assured pension of Rs 3000/- per month after attaining the age of 60 years.
  • If the subscriber dies, the spouse of the beneficiary shall be entitled to receive 50% of the pension as family pension. Family pension is applicable only to spouse.

CURRENT AFFAIRS TEST June 2022

Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Pradhan Mantri Karam Yogi Maandhan Scheme?

1.       It is a scheme only for start ups.

2.       It will provide loans up to Rs. 1 crore within 59 minutes through a dedicated online portal.

3.       To avail the benefits of the scheme the turnover must be below 1.5 crores

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a)          1 only

(b)         3 only

(c)          1 and 3 only

(d)         1, 2 and 3

Ans. (b)

Under the scheme, a key demand of the trading community, shopkeepers and retail traders will receive a guaranteed monthly pension amount of Rs 3,000 after they reach the age of 60 years.

EASY

CURRENT AFFAIRS – SOCIAL – SCHEMES

61. Consider the following statements regarding Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam’:

  1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.
  2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
  3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Ans. (c)

Provisions will come into effect from the time of official notification after delimitation.

CURRENT AFFAIRS TEST October 2023

Consider the following statements regarding Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam:

1.             It seeks to give 33 per cent reservation to women in Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and state assemblies.

2.             It provides for sub-reservation for SCs & STs among women candidates.

3.             It is applicable to the Legislative Assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry.

4.             It is applicable for a period of 15 years from the commencement of the act.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)          1 and 2 only

(b)          2 and 4 only

(c)          1, 2 and 3 only

(d)          All the above

Ans. (b)

128th Constitution Amendment Bill 2023

·                Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam seeks to give 33 per cent reservation to women in Lok Sabha and state assemblies, NOT Rajya Sabha

·                Women Reservation Act is applicable to the Legislative Assembly of Delhi but NOT Puducherry.

·                In the 33-member Puducherry Assembly, including three nominated legislators, as of Sept 2023, there is only one woman representative belonging to ruling All India N R Congress

·                Reservation of seats for women shall cease to exist 15 years after the commencement of this Amendment Act.

·                It will come into effect from the time of official notification after delimitation.

EASY

CURRENT AFFAIRS – DEFENCE

62. Which of the following statements about Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023 are correct?

  1. This was a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh.
  2. It commenced in Aundh (Pune).
  3. Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a goal of this operation.
  4. Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1,2 and 3

(b) 1,2 and 4

(c) 1,3 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (d)

Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023 was a joint military exercise between India and Sri Lanka

Test 18: Current Affairs November 2023 PRELIMS 2024

Exercise MITRA SHAKTI, recently seen in the news, is conducted between India and:

(a)          Russia

(b)          Nepal

(c)          Bhutan

(d)          Sri Lanka

Ans. (d)

Exercise MITRA SHAKTI-2023

·                In November 2023, the 9th Joint Military exercise “Exercise MITRA SHAKTI-2023” was conducted in Aundh (Pune) between India and Sri Lankan army.

·                Personnel from Indian Air Force and from Sri Lankan Air Force are also participating in the exercise which makes the ninth ‘Mitra Shakti’ as the first bilateral and bi-service exercise between the two countries.

·                The aim of the exercise is to jointly rehearse conduct of Sub Conventional operations under Chapter VII of United Nations Charter.

·                The scope of the exercise includes synergising joint responses during counter-terrorist operations.

EASY

POLITY – FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS

63. A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:

(a) a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.

(b) the Parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition.

(c) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.

(d) the Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy.

Ans. (c)

PRELIMS 2024 GS Paper I Comprehensive Test 1

Which of the following writ can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities and is not available against administrative authorities, legislative bodies, and private individuals or bodies?

1.       Certiorari            

2.       Prohibition

3.       Habeas Corpus   

4.       Mandamus

Select the correct answer from the codes given below

(a)          1 and 3 only

(b)          1 and 2 only

(c)          2 only

(d)          1, 2 and 4 only

Ans. (b)

Prohibition

·                It stands for “to forbid”

·                The writ aims to stop the judicial, quasi-judicial authorities along with tribunals from exceeding their authority.

·                It works opposite to mandamus as it directs the authority to prohibit any activity.

·                The higher court can issue this against the lower court.

·                The objective to direct the inactivity is to prevent the excessive application of one’s jurisdiction.

·                It cannot be invoked against legislative bodies, administrative bodies and private individuals.

MEDIUM

POLITY – STATES

64. Consider the following statements:

  1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.
  2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (b)

It is the President of India who recognizes and declares any community as a Scheduled Tribe, based on the recommendations of the respective state governments.

POLITY NCERT TEST

The constitutional authority vested with the power of declaring castes or tribes as the Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes is the:

(a)          Governor

(b)          Home Minister

(c)          President of India

(d)          SC & ST Commission

 

Ans. (c)

EASY

POLITY – PARLIAMENT

65. With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements:

  1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.
  2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither l nor 2

Ans. (b)

The President of India lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.

EASY

CURRENT AFFAIRS – BOOKS

66. Who of the following is the author of the books “The India Way” and “Why Bharat Matters”?

(a) Bhupender Yadav

(b) Nalin Mehta

(c) Shashi Tharoor

(d) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar

Ans. (d)

Why Bharat Matters is a 2024 non-fictional book written by Indian politician and author S. Jaishankar.

Mr. Jaishankar is the incumbent Minister of External Affairs of the Government of India.

MEDIUM

CURRENT AFFAIRS – INTERNATIONAL

67. Consider the following pairs :

 

Country

Reason for being in the news

1.

Argentina

Worst economic crisis

2.

Sudan

War between the country’s regular army and

paramilitary forces

3.

Turkey

Rescinded its membership of NATO

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) All three pairs

(d) None of the pairs

Ans. (b)

Pair 1 and 2 are correct

Turkey did not rescind its membership of NATO.

MEDIUM

CURRENT AFFAIRS – INTERNATIONAL

68. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Sumed pipeline is Persian Gulf a strategic route for oil and natural gas shipments to Europe.

Statement-II : Sumed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans. (a)

The Sumed Pipeline is an oil pipeline in Egypt, running from the Ain Sokhna terminal in the Gulf of Suez, the northernmost terminus of the Red Sea, to offshore Sidi Kerir port, Alexandria in the Mediterranean Sea.

MEDIUM

GEOGRAPHY – MAPPING

69. Consider the following statements

  1. The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form.
  2. No water enters the Red Sea from rivers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (c)

The Red Sea is a sea inlet of the Indian Ocean, lying between Africa and Asia. Its connection to the ocean is in the south, through the Bab-el-Mandeb strait and the Gulf of Aden.

GEOGRAPHY MAPPING TEST – ASIA

The countries bordering the Red Sea are:

1.             Saudi Arabia

2.             Yemen

3.             Ethiopia

4.             Egypt

5.             Djibouti

Select the correct answer code:

(a)          1, 2, 4 and 5 only

(b)          1, 3, 4 and 5 only

(c)          1, 2, 3 and 4 only

(d)          All the above

Ans. (a)

EASY

ENVIRONMENT – POLLUTION

70. According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), which one of the following is the largest source of sulphur dioxide emissions?

(a) Locomotives using fossil fuels

(b) Ships using fossil fuels

(c) Extraction of metals from ores

(d) Power plants using fossil fuels

Ans. (d)

Environment – Pollution Test

Consider the following pairs of pollutants and sources:

1. Sulphur dioxide: Thermal power plants

2. Lead: Incinerators

3. Volatile organic compounds: Printers

4. Fly Ash: Biomass burning

Which of the pair(s) is/are correctly matched ?

1 and 4 only

1 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2 and 3 only

Ans. (d)

Sulphur dioxide:

·                Largest sources of sulphur dioxide emissions are emissions from fossil fuel combustion at thermal power plants (73%) and other industrial facilities (20%). 

·                Other sources include industrial processes such as extracting metal from ore, and the burning of high sulphur containing fuels by locomotives, large ships, and non-road equipment.

Lead:

·                Major sources of lead are ore and metals processing plants and piston-engine aircrafts operating on leaded aviation fuel.

·                Other sources include waste incinerators, utilities, and lead-acid battery  manufacturers.

·                The highest air concentrations of lead are usually found near  lead smelters.

Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs)

·                They are a large group of carbon-based chemicals that easily evaporate at room temperature.

Fly ash

·                It is the finely divided mineral residue resulting from the combustion of coal in electric generating plants.

EASY

POLITY – INTRODUCTION

71. Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?

(a) C. Rajagopalachari

(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(c) T. T. Krishnamachari

(d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

Ans. (d)

Day 6: Prelims 2024 Polity 1

Consider the following statements:

1. Constituent Assembly held its first meeting on December 9, 1946.

2. The oldest member, was elected as the temporary President of the Assembly, following the British practice.

3. H. C. Mukherjee was Vice-President of the Constituent Assembly.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)          All the above

(b)          1 and 3 only

(c)          1 and 2 only

(d)          None of the above

Ans. (b)

The oldest member, Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha, was elected as the temporary President of the Assembly, following the French practice.

MEDIUM

POLITY – INTRODUCTION

72. With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:

  1. It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States.
  2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither l nor 2

Ans (a)

Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal executive

Test 16 History: Modern India PRELIMS 2024

Which of the following is/are the principle feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1935?

1. Provincial autonomy

2. All India Federation

3. Local Self Government

4. Dyarchy in the provinces

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a)          1 and 2 only

(b)          2 and 3 only

(c)          2 and 4 only

(d)          1, 2 and 4 only

Ans (a)

The Government of India Act of 1935 provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation consisting of provinces and princely states as units. It abolished dyarchy in the provinces and introduced ‘provincial autonomy’ in its place. 

EASY

HISTORY – CULTURE – LITERATURE

73. Which one of the following is a work attributed to playwright Bhasa?

(a) Kavyalankara

(b) Natyashastra

(c) Madhyama-vyayoga

(d) Mahabhashya

Ans. (c)

NCERT Test History Class VI

“Mahabhasya” a Sanskrit work, written by Patanjali, is a commentary on Panini’s Ashtadhyayi. It is essentially a book on:

(a)          Medicine

(b)          Grammar

(c)          Astronomy

(d)          Mathematics

Ans. (b)

Day 21: Prelims 2024 Culture Music

Consider the following statement.

1.    Bharata’s Natyashastra elaborates the musicology.

2.    Brihaddeshi defined the word ‘raga’.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?

(a)          1 only

(b)          2 only

(c)          Both 1 and 2

(d)          Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (c)

Brihaddeshi 

·                It is a Classical Sanskrit text, dated ca. 6th to 8th century CE, on Indian classical music, attributed to Mataṅga Muni. 

·                It is the first text to speak directly of the raga and to distinguish marga (“classical”) from desi (“folk”) music. 

·                It also introduced sargam solfège (or solfa), the singing of the first syllable of the names of the musical notes, as an aid to learning and performance. 

·                The author based his work on Bharata Muni’s Natya Shastra

·                His discussion of musical scales and micro-tonal intervals clarifies Bharata’s work, and also clarifies Bharata’s terse presentation of many issues related to śruti.

DIFFICULT

HISTORY – CULTURE – JAINISM & BUDDHISM

74. Sanghabhuti, an Indian Buddhist monk, who travelled to China at the end of the fourth century AD, was the author of a commentary on:

(a) Prajnaparamita Sutra

(b) Visuddhimagga

(c) Sarvastivada Vinaya

(c) Lalitavistara

Ans. (c)

EASY

HISTORY – CULTURE – ARCHITECTURE

75. Consider the following properties included in the World Heritage List released by UNESCO:

  1. Shantiniketan
  2. Rani-ki-Vav
  3. Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas
  4. Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya

How many of the above properties were included in 2023?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Ans. (b)

Day 14: Prelims 2024 Culture UNESCO Tangible Heritage

Consider the following statements regarding Santiniketan:

1.      It was recently declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

2.      It was established by Maharshi Devendranath Tagore

3.      In 1921, Maharshi Devendranath Tagore founded Visva Bharati University there

4.      Ballabhpur Wildlife Sanctuary is located near Shantiniketan and is popular as a Tiger reserve. 

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)          Only 1

(b)          Only 2

(c)          Only 3

(d)          All of these

Ans. (b)

Statements 1 & 2 are correct.

Santiniketan was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in October 2023.

It was established by Maharshi Devendranath Tagore

In 1921, Rabindranath Tagore founded Visva Bharati University there

Ballabhpur Wildlife Sanctuary is located near Shantiniketan and is popular as Deer Park. 

Day 14: Prelims 2024 Culture UNESCO Tangible Heritage

Consider the following statements regarding Hoysala temples:

5.      Hoysala temples in Andhra Pradesh were recently declared UNESCO World Heritage Sites.

6.      The material used in temple construction is soapstone.

7.      Many sculptures of the temples are signed by artists which is unique in the history of Indian art.      

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)          1 and 2 only

(b)          1 and 3 only

(c)          2 and 3 only

(d)          All the above

Ans. (c)

Hoysala temples at Belur, Halebid, and Somanathapur in Karnataka were declared UNESCO World Heritage Sites in October 2023

It includes the Chennakeshava temple at Belur, the Hoysaleshwara temple at Halebid and Keshava temple at Somanathapur.

The Hoysaleswara temple is a Shaivism tradition monument, yet reverentially includes many themes from Vaishnavism and Shaktism tradition of Hinduism, as well as images from Jainism.

Numerous temple artwork panels contain signatures or statements by the artists or the guild they belonged to, and these are usually at the artwork’s pedestal or underneath.

EASY

POLITY – AMENDMENTS

76. As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:

  1. Addition
  2. Variation
  3. Repeal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) l and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (d)

Day 25 Prelims 2024 Polity FR, DPSP, FD

Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and other labeled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A):  The parliament under Article 368 can amend any part of the constitution including the fundamental rights but without affecting the basic Structure of the constitution.

Reason (R): The Supreme court has clearly defined and listed out as to what constitutes the basic structure.

In context of the above statements, which one of the following is correct?

(a)          Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b)          Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c)          A is true but R is false

(d)          A is false but R is true

Ans. (c)

The Supreme court has not defined and listed out as to what constitutes the basic structure of the Constitution.

EASY

CURRENT AFFAIRS – INTERNATIONAL

77. Consider the following countries:

  1. Italy
  2. Japan
  3. Nigeria
  4. South Korea
  5. South Africa

Which of the above countries are frequently mentioned in the media for their low birth rates, or ageing population or declining population?

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1, 3 and 5

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 3 and 5 only

Ans. (a)

According to data from Eurostat, Italy is the oldest country in the European Union, with an average median age of above 48.

Declining birth rates and better survival odds for older people have significantly aged Italy’s population.

In fact, two thirds of the world’s countries now have childbirth rates below the replacement rate. Japan is low, China is low, South Korea is the lowest in the world.

MEDIUM

POLITY – PARLIAMENT

78. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?

  1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.
  2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
  3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
  4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) l and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Ans. (c)

Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha may not be accepted by the Lok Sabha.

POLITY TEST PARLIAMENT – PYQ

With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:

1.      When the Lok Sabha transmits the Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.

2.      When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.

3.      In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for the Finance Bill.

How many of the above statements are correct?          (UPSC CSE 2023)

(a)          Only 1

(b)          Only 2

(c)          All 3

(d)          None

Ans. (a)

Only statement 2 is correct.

·                Finance Bill is part of the Budget. It is a money bill. Rajya Sabha (Council of States) cannot amend or reject the Bill.

·                When the Lok Sabha transmits the Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.

·                It has to return the bill to Lok Sabha within 14 days.

·                The Lok Sabha has the final authority to accept or reject these recommendations.

·                Finance Bill is a money bill. Therefore, a joint sitting cannot be held. Lok Sabha has final say.

DIFFICULT

INDIA YEAR BOOK

79. Which of the following is/are correctly matched in terms of equivalent rank in the three services of Indian Defence forces ?

 

Army

Airforce

Navy

1.

Brigadier

Air Commodore

Commander

2.

Major General

Air Vice Marshal

Vice Admiral

3.

Major

Squadron Leader

Lieutenant Commander

4.

Lieutenant

Colonel

Group Captain

Captain

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 4

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 3 only

Ans.(d)

 

Army

Airforce

Navy

1.

Brigadier

Air Commodore

Commodore

2.

Major General

Air Vice Marshal

Rear Admiral

3.

Major

Squadron Leader

Lieutenant Commander

4.

Lieutenant

Colonel

Wing Commander

Commander

MEDIUM

POLITY – CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES

80. The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?

  1. Governor of the Constituent State
  2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State
  3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
  4. The Home Minister of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1,2 and 3 only

(b) 1,3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (d)

MEDIUM

ECONOMY – MONEY MARKET

81. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I : If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury

Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment.

Statement-II: The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans. (d)

If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury

Bonds can exercise their claims to receive payment, but will be unable to receive payments,

The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government.

MEDIUM

ECONOMY – BANKING

82. Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : Syndicated lending spreads the risk of borrower default across multiple lenders.

Statement-II : The syndicated loan can be a fixed amount/lumpsum of funds, but cannot be a credit line.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans. (c)

Syndicated loan

  • It is a form of financing that is offered by a group of lenders.
  • Syndicated loans arise when a project requires too large a loan for a single lender or when a project needs a specialized lender with expertise in a specific asset class.
  • Syndicating allows lenders to spread risk and take part in financial opportunities that may be too large for their individual capital base.
  • Lenders are referred to as a syndicate, which works together to provide funds for a single borrower.
  • The borrower can be a corporation, a large project, or a sovereign government.
  • The loan can involve a fixed amount of funds, a credit line, or a combination of the two.

MEDIUM

ECONOMY – BANKING

83. Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee:

  1. It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in alignment with its monetary policy.
  2. It appears as a liability on the RBI’s balance sheet.
  3. It is insured against inflation by its very design.
  4. It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) l and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Ans. (d)

PRELIMS 2024 GS 1 Comprehensive Test 1

Consider the following statements:

1. e-rupee, known as the “Digital Rupee,” is digital legal tender issued by the Reserve Bank of India.

2. e-rupee can only be transferred to another e-rupee wallet.

3. e-rupee is designed to replace cash and cards.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)   l and 2 only

(b)   1 only

(c)   1 and 3 only

(d)   All the above

Ans. (a)

e-rupee/ Digital rupee

·         The Reserve Bank of India introduced the CBDC e-rupee on December 1, 2022, as a digital representation of legal tender. 

·         Similar to physical currency, it comes in various denominations and is distributed through banks. Users can transact with e-rupee via digital wallets provided by participating banks.

·          e-rupee can only be transferred to another e-rupee wallet, meaning it cannot be transferred into another bank’s accounts or UPI VPAs.

·         e-rupee is designed to complement physical currency and existing payment methods, not replace them. It offers an additional means of handling money.

 MEDIUM

HISTORY – CULTURE –JAINISM & BUDDHISM

84. With reference to ancient India, Gautama Buddha was generally known by which of the following epithets ?

  1. Nayaputta
  2. Shakyamuni
  3. Tathagata

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None of the above are epithets of Gautama Buddha

Ans. (b)

Surviving early Jain and Buddhist literature uses several names (or epithets) for Mahavira, including Nayaputta, Muni, Samana, Nigantha, Brahman, and Bhagavan.

Epithets for Buddha include Shakyamuni and Tathagata

Tathagata (“the perfect one”), lit. the one who has “thus gone”, or “thus come”, is an epithet of the Buddha used by him when speaking of himself.

MEDIUM

HISTORY – ANCIENT

85. Consider the following information :

 

Archaeological Site

State

Description

1.

Chandraketugarh

Odisha

Trading Port town

2.

Inamgaon

Maharashtra

Chalcolithic site

3.

Mangadu

Kerala

Megalithic site

4.

Salihundam

Andhra Pradesh

Rock-cut cave shrines

In which of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 4

Ans. (b)

MEDIUM

HISTORY – MEDIEVAL

86. Who of the following rulers of medieval India gave permission to the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal?

(a) Krishnadevaraya

(b) Narasimha Saluva

(c) Muhammad Shah III

(d) Yusuf Adil Shah

Ans. (a)

Sri Krishnadevaraya

  • Sri Krishnadevaraya in 1510 signed a treaty with the Portuguese.
  • It permitted Albuquerque to construct forts in Bhatkal. 
  • Domingo Paes and Barbosa,Portuguese travellers visited his court in 1520.
  • Krishnadevaraya maintained friendly relations with the Portuguese.
  • He also helpedthe Portuguese to conquer Goa from Bijapur in 1510.

EASY

HISTORY – MODERN

87. With reference to revenue collection by, Cornwallis, consider the following statements:

  1. Under the Ryotwari Settlement of revenue collection, the peasants were exempted from revenue payment in case of bad harvests or natural calamities.
  2. Under the Permanent Settlement in Bengal, if the Zamindar failed to pay his revenues to the state, on or before the fixed date, he would be removed from his Zamindari.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (b)

NCERT TEST HISTORY MODERN

With reference to the Permanent Settlement System of 1793, consider the following statements:

1.   It was introduced in India in Bengal and Bihar by then Governor General Warren Hastings.

2.   It converted zamindars and revenue collectors into landlords and cultivators into mere tenants.

3.   The zamindars’ right to land was permanent and irrevokable.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a)          1 and 2 only

(b)          2 only

(c)          2 and 3 only

(d)          All the above

Ans. (b)

Permanent Settlement System of 1793, was introduced in India in Bengal and Bihar by then Governor General Lord Cornwallis.

The zamindars’ right to land was subject to their timely payment of revenue to the East India Company. i.e. Zamindars were reduced to tenants of the Company.

NCERT TEST HISTORY MODERN

Consider the following statements:

1.      More and more land passed into the hands of Ryotwari and Mahalwari cultivators due to which tenants lost their tenancy rights and fell in the trap of poverty.

2.      Whenever the crop failed the peasants/cultivators fell back to moneylenders not only to pay land revenue but also to feed their family

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)          1 and 2 only

(b)          2 only

(c)          2 and 3 only

(d)          All the above

Ans.  (b)

More and more land passed into the hands of moneylenders, merchants, rich peasants and moneyed class.

Ryotwari and Mahalwari  cultivators due to which tenants lost their tenancy rights and fell in the trap of poverty.

MEDIUM

HISTORY – CULTURE – RELIGION

88. Consider the following statements:

  1. There are no parables in Upanishads.
  2. Upanishads were composed earlier than the Puranas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (b)

Statement 1 is incorrect: Upanishads are known for their philosophical dialogues and teachings, and they often employ allegories and parables to convey complex ideas. For example, the Chandogya Upanishad contains the well-known parable of ‘Satyakama Jabala’ and his search for truth.

Statement 2 is correct: Upanishads form the concluding part of the Vedas and are known as ‘Vedanta’ (the end of the Vedas). They are believed to have been composed between 800-500 BCE. Puranas, on the other hand, are a later genre of Hindu texts, composed from around the 3rd century CE onwards

Day 42 Prelims 2024: Culture Literature

Consider the following statements.

1.   Upanishads contains Karma kanda i.e. ritualistic actions.

2.   Aryanakas contains Jnanakanda i.e. spirituality section.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (c)

Aryanakas contains Karma kanda i.e. ritualistic actions. Upanishads contains Jnana kanda i.e. spirituality section.

MEDIUM

CURRENT AFFAIRS – INTERNATIONAL

89. Consider the following statements:

  1. India is a member of the International Grains Council.
  2. A country needs to be a member of the International Grains Council for exporting or importing rice and wheat.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (a)

A country can’t be stopped from exporting or importing if it is not a member of the International Grains Council.

International Grains Council

  • It was founded in 1949 as the International Wheat Council.
  • International Grains Agreement came into effect in 1995 and the council was renamed.
  • The definition of “grains” was formally expanded to include rice (1 July 2009) and oilseeds (1 July 2013).
  • It is headquartered in London.
  • As of April 2020 its membership comprises 11 producing members and 18 importing members.
  • India is an exporting member.

EASY

HISTORY – CULTURE – INTANGIBLE HERITAGE

90. Which one of the following was the latest inclusion in the Intangible Cultural Heritage List of UNESCO?

(a) Chhau dance

(b) Durga puja

(c) Garba dance

(d) Kumbh mela

Ans. (c)

Test 10: History: Art & Culture PRELIMS 2024

Consider the following list:

  1. Buddhist chanting of Ladakh
  2. Thatheras of Jandiala Guru
  3. Kumbh Mela
  4. Durga Puja in Kolkata
  5. Garba of Gujarat

How many of the Indian elements from the above list have been inscribed by UNESCO in its ‘List of Intangible Cultural Heritage’?

(a)          Only 1

(b)          Only 2

(c)          Only 3

(d)          All of them

Ans. (d)

In December 2021, Durga Puja in Kolkata has been inscribed on the list of ‘Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity’ by UNESCO

In December 2023, Garba has been inscribed on the list of ‘Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity’ by UNESCO

MEDIUM

POLITY – ELECTIONS

91. How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?

(a) One

(b) Two

(c) Three

(d) Four

Ans. (d)

In India, Delimitation Commissions has been constituted 4 times – in 1952, 1963, 1973 and in 2002.

Polity Test – Elections

The last Delimitation Commission was appointed by India in the year:

(a)          1971

(b)          1976

(c)          2002

(d)          2009

Ans. (c)

Delimitation means the act or process of fixing limits or boundaries of territorial constituencies in a country or a province having a legislative body.

In India, such Delimitation Commissions have been constituted 4 times − in 1952 under the Delimitation Commission Act, 1952, in 1963 under Delimitation Commission Act, 1962, in 1973 under Delimitation Act, 1972 and in 2002 under Delimitation Act, 2002.

EASY

POLITY – INTRODUCTION

92. The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages ?

  1. Konkani
  2. Manipuri
  3. Nepali
  4. Maithili

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 1,3 and 4

(d) 3 and 4

Ans. (a)

Day 35: Prelims 2024 Culture Languages

Which of the following languages is/are mentioned in the Eighth Schedules in the Constitution of India?

1.    Konkani

2.    Manipuri

3.    Nepali

4.    Sindhi

5.    Bodo

6.     Pali

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a)          1, 2, 3 and 4

(b)          1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

(c)          1, 3, 4, 5 and 6

(d)          1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

Ans. (b)

14 languages were initially included in the Eight Schedule to the Constitution.

Sindhi language was added in 1967.

Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were included in 1992.

Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added in 2004.

EASY

POLITY – ELECTIONS

93. Consider the following pairs :

 

Party

Its Leader

1.

Bharatiya Jana Sangh

Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee

2.

Socialist Party

C. Rajagopalachari

3.

Congress for Democracy

Jagjivan Ram

4.

Swatantra Party

Acharya Narendra Dev

How many of the above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Ans. (b)

Only 1 and 3 are correctly paired

 

Party

Its Leader

1.

Bharatiya Jana Sangh

Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee

2.

Socialist Party

Acharya Narendra Dev

3.

Congress for Democracy

Jagjivan Ram

4.

Swatantra Party

C. Rajagopalachari

GS I Comprehensive Test – 3 PRELIMS 2024

Congress Socialist Party was founded by-

1.      Acharya Narendra Dev

2.      Jai Prakash Narain

3.      Sardar Patel

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a)          1 only

(b)          1 and 2 only

(c)          2 and 3 only

(d)          1, 2 and 3

Ans. (b)

Congress Socialist Party

·                It was a socialist caucus within the Indian National Congress. 

·                It was founded in 1934 by Congress members who rejected what they saw as the anti-rational mysticism of Gandhi as well as the sectarian attitude of the Communist Party of India towards the Congress.

·                It ceased operations in 1948

·                Jayaprakash Narayan, Rammanohar Lohiya, Acharya Narendra Deva, Minoo Masani were among its founding members.

EASY

POLITY – INTRODUCTION

94. Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India?

  1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.
  2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
  3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (d)

Powers of the Panchayats           –  Part IX

Powers of the Municipalities      –  Part IX A

Cooperative Societies                 –  Part IX B

Emergency provisions                –  Part XVIII

Amendment of the Constitution –  Part XX

Day 39: Prelims 2024 Polity Panchayats Municipalities

Which one of the following is NOT correct?

Part IX A of the Constitution of India pertaining to the Municipalities provides:

(a)          that Grants-in-aid be made to the Municipalities from the Consolidated Fund of the State

(b)          for setting up a separate Finance Commission for the Municipalities

(c)          for setting up Committee for District Planning

(d)          for setting up Committee for Metropolitan Planning

Ans. (b)

EASY

POLITY – CENTRE–STATE RELATIONS

95. Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?

(a) Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.

(b) Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.

(c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.

(d) Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List.

Ans. (c)

Inter-State trade and commerce, Inter-State migration, Inter-State quarantine and Corporation tax are Union subjects under Union List.

Day 29: Prelims 2024 Polity Centre-State Relations

Which of the following subjects are included in the State List?

1. Corporation tax

2. Agriculture

3. Industries

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a)          1 and 2 Only

(b)          1 and 3 Only

(c)          2 and 3 Only

(d)          All of the above

Ans. (c)

Corporation tax comes in the Union List.

EASY

POLITY – FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS

96. Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?

(a) Article 15

(b) Article 16

(c) Article 19

(d) Article 21

Ans. (d)

POLITY TEST – Fundamental Rights

Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India? (UPSC CSE 2021)

(a)   Article 15

(b)   Article 16

(c)   Article 21

(d)   Article 29

Ans. (c)

Right to Privacy

K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India in 2017

·         The Supreme Court described privacy and its importance in the landmark decision of K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India in 2017 that – Right to Privacy is a fundamental and inalienable right and attaches to the person covering all information about that person and the choices that he/ she makes. 

·         The right to privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 and as a part of the freedoms guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution.

EASY

CURRENT AFFAIRS – DEFENCE

97. What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs?

  1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee
  2. Exercise military command over the Service Chiefs
  3. Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-services matters.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Ans (d)

Chief of Defence Staff

  • The post was created in 2019.
  • He is the Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee and acts as the Principal Military Adviser to Raksha Mantri on all tri-service matters.

CURRENT AFFAIRS Test January 2020

Consider the following statements.

1. The Department of Military Affairs (DMA) has been created in the Defence Ministry.

2.  The Department of Military Affairs (DMA) will be headed by the Chief of Army Staff.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

(a)          l only

(b)          2 only

(c)          Both 1 and 2

(d)          Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (b)

The Department of Military Affairs (DMA) has been created in the Defence Ministry, and General Bipin Rawat, who will take charge as the first Chief of the Defence Staff (CDS), will head it.

He becomes the Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee and shall act as the Principal Military Adviser to Raksha Mantri on all tri-service matters.

EASY

CURRENT AFFAIRS – DEFENCE

98. Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called :

(a) Operation Sankalp

(b) Operation Maitri

(c) Operation Sadbhavana

(d) Operation Madad

Ans. (c)

Operation Sadbhavana

  • It was officially launched in 1998, especially in rural areas near the Line of Control (LOC) where insurgency and militancy had caused destruction to property and a sense of alienation among the people of Jammu and Kashmir from the rest of India.
  • Operation Sadbhavana (Goodwill) was in news in February 2023 as a unique humane initiative undertaken by Indian Army in Ladakh.

EASY

GEOGRAPHY – MAPPING

99. The longest border between any two countries in the world is between:

(a) Canada and the United States of America

(b) Chile and Argentina

(c) China and India

(d) Kazakhstan and Russian Federation

Ans. (a)

The international land border between the United States and Canada is the longest in the world at almost 8,900 kilometers. It includes the border between Canada and the continental U.S. as well as the border between Alaska and northern Canada

EASY

POLITY – PARLIAMENT

100. Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?

  1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee.
  2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.
  3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) l and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) l and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and3

Ans. (c)

Indian Polity Test – Parliamentary Committees

Which of the following committee enforces code of conduct of members of Parliament?

(a)          Ethics committee

(b)          Parliamentary Affairs committee

(c)          Committee on Privileges

(d)          Ad-hoc committee

Ans. (a)

Ethics Committee

·                Each of the two Houses of Parliament has an ethics committee.

·                It oversees the moral and ethical conduct of members.

·                It also prepares a Code of Conduct for members of the house.

·                The ethics committee in Lok Sabha has 15 MPs.

·                The ethics committee in Rajya Sabha has 10 MPs.

·                Any person may make a complaint to the Committee regarding alleged unethical behaviour or breach of Code of Conduct by a member or alleged incorrect information of a member’s interests.

·                The Committee may also take up matters suo motu.

·                Where it has been found that a member has indulged in unethical behaviour or there is other misconduct or a member has contravened the rules, the Committee may recommend imposition of one or more of the sanctions.

·                This may include censure, reprimand, suspension from the House for a specific period or any other sanction determined by the Committee.

POLITY TEST EXTRA-CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES

Who among the following acts as ex-officio Chairman of North Eastern Council (NEC)?

(a)          Union Minister of Home Affairs

(b)          Prime Minister

(c)          President of India

(d)          None of these

Ans. (a)

North Eastern Council (NEC)

·         It was constituted in 1971 by an Act of Parliament.

·         It was established to promote the economic and social development of the Northeastern states.

·         The composition of the NEC includes Governors and Chief Ministers of the states, three members nominated by the President, and the Home Minister.

 
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