UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2024 Question Papers

Click Here to Download UPSC Prelims 2024 GS Paper-I (GS) Set B Answer Key with explanation

UPSC – CSE (Prelims) 2024

Paper I (GS) – Set B

ANSWER KEY

EASY

SOCIAL – HEALTH

1. The total fertility rate in an economy is defined as :

(a) the number of children born per 1000 people in the population in a year.

(b) the number of children born to a couple in their lifetime in a given population.

(c) the birth rate minus death rate.

(d) the average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age.

Ans. (d)

Total fertility rate (TFR) of a population is the average number of children that are born to a woman over her lifetime

 MEDIUM

ECONOMY – SECURITIES

2. Consider the following statements :

1. In India, Non-Banking Financial Companies can access the Liquidity Adjustment Facility window of the Reserve Bank of India.
2. In India, Foreign Institutional Investors can hold the Government Securities (G-Secs).
3. In India, Stock Exchanges can offer separate trading platforms for debts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) l and 2 only

3 only

1, 2 and 3

2 and 3 only

Ans. (d)

MEDIUM

ECONOMY – SECURITIES

3. In India, which of the following can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities ?

1. Insurance Companies
2. Pension Funds
3. Retail Investors

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (d)

Government Securities (G Secs) are issued by the government to borrow funds from the general public

• The Reserve Bank of India issues bonds on behalf of the government of India.
• In common parlance, government securities with a maturity of less than one year are called treasury bills, and those with longer maturity are called government bonds.

Who can buy government securities?

• Government securities are available for purchase by various entities, including banks, financial institutions, primary dealers, corporate entities, individuals, and foreign investors.
• These securities can be bought through auctions conducted by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) or in the secondary market through recognized stock exchanges or the NDS-OM platform.

NDS-OM (Negotiated Dealing System – Order Matching Segment)

• It is a screen based electronic anonymous order matching system for secondary market trading in Government securities owned by RBI.
• Presently the membership of the system is open to entities like Banks, Primary Dealers, Insurance Companies, Mutual Funds etc. i.e entities who maintain SGL accounts with RBI.
• These are Primary Members (PM) of NDS and are permitted by RBI to become members of NDS-OM.

EASY

ECONOMY – SECURITIES

4. Consider the following:

1. Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF)
2. Motor vehicles
3. Currency swap

Which of the above is/are considered financial instruments ?

• 1 only
• 2 and 3 only
• 1, 2 and 3
• l and 3 only

Ans. (d)

Financial instruments are monetary contracts between parties. They can be created, traded, modified and settled. They can be cash, evidence of an ownership interest in an entity or a contractual right

Common examples of financial instruments include stocks, exchange-traded funds (ETFs), mutual funds, real estate investment trusts (REITs), bonds, derivatives contracts (such as options, futures, and swaps), checks, certificates of deposit (CDs), bank deposits, and loans.

EASY

ECONOMY – SECTORS

5. With reference to the sectors of the Indian economy, consider the following pairs :

How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Ans. (b)

Only 2 and 4 are correctly paired.

MEDIUM

ECONOMY – ENERGY

6. Consider the following materials :

1. Agricultural residues
2. Corn grain
3. Wastewater treatment sludge
4. Wood mill waste

Which of the above can be used as feedstock for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel ?

(a) l and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Ans. (c)

Sustainable aviation fuel (SAF) is an alternative fuel made from non-petroleum feedstocks that reduces emissions from air transportation.

SAF can be produced from non-petroleum-based renewable feedstocks including, but not limited to, the food and yard waste portion of municipal solid waste, woody biomass, fats/greases/oils, and other feedstocks.

EASY

ECONOMY – FINANCIAL MARKET

7. With reference to physical capital in Indian economy, consider the following pairs :

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Ans. (b)

Only pairs 2 and 4 are correct

Fixed capital is any kind of real, physical asset that is used repeatedly in the production of a product. Working capital is the cash or other liquid assets that a company utilises to finance day-to-day activities such as payroll and bill payment.

EASY

S&T – IT

8. Which one of the following words/phrases is most appropriately used denote “an interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds that can be accessed simultaneously by millions of users, who can exert property rights over virtual items ?

(a) Big data analytics

(b) Cryptography

(c) Metaverse

(d) Virtual matrix

Ans. (c)

• Metaverse is a loosely defined term referring to virtual worlds in which users represented by avatars interact, usually in 3D and focused on social and economic connection.
• The term metaverse originated in the 1992 science fiction novel Snow Crash as a portmanteau of “meta” and “universe”.

https://www.newindianexpress.com/xplore/2024/May/03/continuing-relevance-of-intellectual-property-rights-metaverse-nfts

MEDIUM

ECONOMY – BANKING

9. With reference to the rule/rules imposed by the Reserve Bank of India while treating foreign banks, consider the following statements :

1. There is no minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India.
2. For wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India, at least 50% of the board members should be Indian nationals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) l only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (b)

Foreign Banks

• At present, foreign banks have presence in India only through branches.
• At present, foreign banks, if eligible, are allowed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to set up business in India through a single mode of presence i.e. either branch mode or a wholly owned subsidiary (WOS) mode.
• The initial minimum paid-up voting equity capital for a WOS shall be Rs. 5 billion.
• The composition of the board of directors of WOS should be such that not less than 50 per cent directors should be Indian nationals/NRIs/PIOs subject to the condition that one-third of the directors are Indian nationals resident in India;

EASY

ECONOMY – POLICY

10. With reference to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) rules in India, consider the following statements :

1. CSR rules specify that expenditures that benefit the company directly or its employees will not be considered as CSR activities.
2. CSR rules do not specify minimum spending on CSR activities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) l only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (a)

DIFFICULT

S&T – SPACE

11. With reference to radioisotope thermoelectric generators (RTGs), consider the following statements :

1. 1. RTGs are miniature fission reactors.
   2. RTGs are used for powering the onboard systems of spacecrafts.
   3. RTGs can use Plutonium-238, which is a by-product of weapons development.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) l and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (b)

Radioisotope Thermoelectric Generator (RTG)

• It is a type of nuclear battery that uses an array of thermocouples to convert the heat released by the decay of a suitable radioactive material into electricity by the Seebeck effect.
• This type of generator has no moving parts and is ideal for deployment in remote and harsh environments for extended periods with no risk of parts wearing out or malfunctioning.
• RTGs have been used as power sources in satellites, space probes, and uncrewed remote facilities such as a series of lighthouses built by the Soviet Union inside the Arctic Circle.
• RTGs and fission reactors use very different nuclear reactions.
• The first RTG launched into space by the United States was SNAP 3B in 1961 powered by 96 grams of plutonium-238.
• Plutonium-238 is formed in nuclear power reactors from uranium-238 by neutron capture.

DIFFICULT

S&T – SPACE

12. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I : Giant stars live much longer than dwarf stars.

Statement-II : Compared to dwarf stars, giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans. (d)

Giant stars

• They have a greater rate of the nuclear reactions that light up stars.
• Massive stars also use up the hydrogen fuel in their core faster, despite starting out with much more of it, meaning they live much shorter lives than dwarf stars.

DIFFICULT

S&T – HEALTH

13. Which one of the following is synthesised in human body that dilates blood vessels and increases blood flow ?

(a) Nitric oxide

(b) Nitrous oxide

(c) Nitrogen dioxide

(d) Nitrogen pentoxide

Ans. (a)

Nitric oxide (NO) has been used for decades in cases of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) as a vasodilator, improving gas exchange in the lungs and allowing the blood to better oxygenate.

Nitrous oxide is a gas used for anesthesia and pain relief.

Nitrogen dioxide is a toxic gas.

Nitrogen pentoxide is a chemical compound.

EASY

DEFENCE

14. Consider the following activities :

1. Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft
2. Monitoring of precipitation
3. Tracking the migration of animals

In how many of the above activities can the radars be used ?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans. (b)

Radar

• RADAR stands for ‘Radio Detection And Ranging’ and is an active transmission and reception method in the microwave GHz range.
• It is a system that uses radio waves to determine the distance (ranging), direction and radial velocity of objects relative to the site.
• Radars are widely used to produce precipitation estimations.
• Since the 1960s, radar has become a widely-used technique for studying migrating animals.

EASY

DEFENCE

15. Consider the following aircraft :

1. Rafael
2. MiG-29
3. Tejas MK-1

How many of the above are considered fifth generation fighter aircraft ?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans. (d)

Fifth Generation Fighter Aircraft (FGFA)

• A fifth-generation fighter is a jet fighter aircraft classification which includes major technologies developed during the first part of the 21st century.
• It typically includes features like stealth, low-probability-of-intercept radar (LPIR), agile airframes with supercruise performance, advanced avionics features, and highly integrated computer systems
• Some examples of FGFA are F22 Raptor of USA, Su-57 of Russia, J-20 of China

Dassault Rafale

• It is a French twin-engine, canard delta wing, multirole fighter aircraft designed and built by Dassault Aviation.
• It is referred to as an “omnirole” 4.5th generation aircraft by Dassault.

Tejas

• It is an Indian single-engine, 5 generation delta wing multirole combat aircraft designed by the Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA) and manufactured by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) for the Indian Air Force (IAF) and Indian Navy.

MEDIUM

S&T – HEALTH

16. In which of the following are hydrogels used?

1. Controlled drug delivery in patients
2. Mobile air-conditioning systems
3. Preparation of industrial lubricants

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (d)

Hydrogel

• It is a three-dimensional network porous structure formed by self-assembly of small or macromolecular polymers.
• It is a biphasic material, a mixture of porous, permeable solids and at least 10% by weight or volume of interstitial fluid composed completely or mainly by water.

Hydrogel for drug delivery:

• Injectable hydrogels can be used to carry drugs or cells for applications in tissue regeneration or 3D bioprinting.
• Hydrogels—used in contact lenses, wound dressings, and diapers—could cool high-power electronics using moisture absorbed from the air.

Hydogels for air-conditioning:

• Air conditioning hasn’t changed much over the past century – most options are energy hungry and many are noisy and pretty unsightly.
• But one company has taken inspiration from nature to create an innovative alternative that doesn’t require electricity and in theory isn’t even visible.
• Using a substance called hydrogel, experts have created walls that absorb moisture to ‘sweat’ – like human skin – and cool the interior of a building.

Hydrogel as lubricant:

• Hydrogels are polymers, which when bonded to surfaces and wetted, become very effective lubricants.
• Hydrogels are biocompatible and could make very effective endoscopic lubricants.

https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/science/iisc-researchers-develop-hydrogel-that-can-remove-microplastics-from-water/articleshow/109254690.cms?from=mdr

EASY

ENVIRONMENT – POLLUTION

17. Which one of the following is the exhaust pipe emission from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles, powered by hydrogen ?

(a) Hydrogen peroxide

(b) Hydronium

(c) Oxygen

(d) Water vapour

Ans. (d)

Fuel cell electric vehicles (FCEVs) are powered by hydrogen. They are more efficient than conventional internal combustion engine vehicles and produce no harmful tailpipe emissions—they only emit water vapor and warm air.

EASY

S&T – ENERGY

18. Recently, the term “pumped-storage hydropower” is actually and appropriately discussed in the context of which one of the following ?

(a) Irrigation of terraced crop fields

(b) Lift irrigation of cereal crops

(c) Long duration energy storage

(d) Rainwater harvesting system

Ans. (c)

Pumped storage hydropower (PSH)

• It is a type of hydroelectric energy storage.
• It is a configuration of two water reservoirs at different elevations that can generate power as water moves down from one to the other (discharge), passing through a turbine.
• The system also requires power as it pumps water back into the upper reservoir (recharge).
• PSH acts similarly to a giant battery, because it can store power and then release it when needed.

Current Affairs January 2024

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/stage-set-for-laying-foundation-for-two-pumped-storage-hydropower-projects-in-andhra-pradesh/article67776238.ece

MEDIUM

ENVIRONMENT – POLLUTION

19. “Membrane Bioreactors” are often discussed in the context of :

(a) Assisted reproductive technologies

(b) Drug delivery nanotechnologies

(c) Vaccine production technologies

(d) Wastewater treatment technologies

Ans. (d)

Membrane bioreactors

• They are combinations of membrane processes like microfiltration or ultrafiltration with a biological wastewater treatment process, the activated sludge process.
• These technologies are now widely used for municipal and industrial wastewater treatment.

EASY

ECONOMY – BANKING

20. With reference to the Indian economy, “Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations” are the instruments of:

(a) Bond market

(b) Forex market

(c) Money market

(d) Stock market

Ans. (c)

A collateralized borrowing and lending obligation (CBLO) is a money market instrument that represents an obligation between a borrower and a lender concerning the terms and conditions of a loan.

EASY

ECONOMY – INFRASTRUCTURE

21. Consider the following airports :

1. Donyi Polo Airport
2. Kushinagar International Airport
3. Vijayawada International Airport

In the recent past, which of the above have been constructed as Greenfield projects ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) l and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.  (a)

Only 11 greenfield airports have become operational since May 2014 till July 2023, Minister of State for Civil Aviation V.K. Singh replied to a question in the Rajya Sabha.

These are the airports at

1. Mopa in Goa,
2. Shirdi in Maharashtra,
3. Sindhudurg in Maharashtra
4. Kalaburagi in Karnataka,
5. Shivamogga in Karnataka
6. Kushinagar in Uttar Pradesh
7. Orvakal (Kurnool) in Andhra Pradesh
8. Durgapur in West Bengal,
9. Pakyong in Sikkim,
10. Kannur in Kerala,
11. Donyi Polo in Arunachal Pradesh.

Current Affairs July 2023

https://epaper.thehindu.com/articleshare?articleurl=https%3A%2F%2Fepaper.thehindu.com%2Fccidist-ws%2Fth%2Fth_chennai%2Fissues%2F45581%2FOPS%2FGEABI4HND.1%2BGM0BI5BOD.1.html

EASY

GEOGRAPHY – CLIMATOLOGY

22. With reference to “water vapour”, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is a gas, the amount of which decreases with altitude.
2. Its percentage is maximum at the poles.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) l only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (a)

EASY

GEOGRAPHY – CLIMATOLOGY

23. Consider the following description :

1. Annual and daily range of temperatures is low.
2. Precipitation occurs throughout the year.
3. Precipitation varies between 50cm – 250 cm

What is this type of climate ?

(a) Equatorial climate

(b) China type climate

(c) Humid subtropical climate

(d) Marine West coast climate

Ans. (d)

Equatorial climate precipitation is 150 cm to 1000 cm.

Marine West Coast climate precipitation is 50 cm to 250 cm

EASY

GEOGRAPHY – CLIMATOLOGY

24. With reference to “Coriolis force”, which of the following statements is/are correct ?

1. It increases with increase in wind velocity.
2. It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) l only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (c)

EASY

GEOGRAPHY – CLIMATOLOGY

25. On June 21 every year, which of the following latitude(s) experience(s) a sunlight of more than 12 hours ?

Equator

 Tropic of Cancer

 Tropic of Capricorn

 Arctic Circle

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 2 and 4

Ans. (d)

DIFFICULT

ENVIRONMENT – CLIMATE CHANGE

26. One of the following regions has the world’s largest tropical peatland, which holds about three years worth of global carbon emissions from fossil fuels; and the possible destruction of which can exert detrimental effect on the global climate. Which one of the following denotes that region ?

(a) Amazon Basin

(b) Congo Basin

(c) Kikori Basin

(d) Rio de la Plata Basin

Ans. (b)

Peatlands

• Peatlands are essentially wetland ecosystems in which waterlogging prevents plants from fully decomposing, are very crucial in slowing climate change because of their ability to store carbon.
• Peatland covers only about 3% of Earth’s land surface but stores about one-third of its soil carbon
• The Congo Basin’s peatlands are an essential bulwark in the fight against climate change because they contain the largest stock of carbon held in tropical peat in the world, are 15% bigger than previously thought.
• The Congo Basin peatlands alone contain about 29 billion tons of carbon, equivalent to about three years of worldwide carbon-dioxide emission
• The Congo Basin is home to the world’s largest tropical peatlands, along with Brazil and Indonesia.
• The peatlands were mapped for the first time by scientists in 2017, and for the moment they remain relatively untouched.
• In August 2022, Congo launched a tender round for 30 oil and gas permits, several of which overlap with the peatlands.
• Congo is also the site of most of the Congo Basin rainforest, the second-largest in the world after the Amazon.

CURRENT AFFAIRS AUGUST 2022

https://www.hindustantimes.com/environment/worlds-largest-tropical-peatlands-bigger-than-size-of-england-survey-101659516430285.html

EASY

ENVIRONMENT – POLLUTION

27. With reference to perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) that are used in making many consumer products, consider the following statements:

1. PFAS are found to be widespread in drinking water, food and food packaging materials.
2. PFAS are not easily degraded in the environment.
3. Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead to bioaccumulation in animal bodies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (d)

DIFFICULT

ENVIRONMENT – BIODIVERSITY

28. Consider the following:

1. Carabid beetles
2. Centipedes
3. Flies
4. Termites
5. Wasps

Parasitoid species are found in how many of the above kind of organisms ?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(c) Only four

(d) All five

Ans. (b)

Parasitoid

• In evolutionary ecology, a parasitoid is an organism that lives in close association with its host at the host’s expense, eventually resulting in the death of the host.
• Parasitoidism is one of six major evolutionary strategies within parasitism, distinguished by the fatal prognosis for the host, which makes the strategy close to predation.
• Parasitoids eventually kill the host they feed on, as opposed to parasites like fleas and ticks, which typically feed upon hosts without killing them.
• Parasitoids are found in a variety of taxa across the insect superorder.
• Most parasitoids are either wasps and bees (Hymenoptera) or flies (Diptera), although a few species of beetles, twisted wing insects, moths, and other insects have been identified as parasitoids.

EASY

ENVIRONMENT – BIODIVERSITY

29. Consider the following plants :

1. Groundnut
2. Horse-gram
3. Soybean

How many of the above belong to the pea family?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans. (c)

Leguminosae

• The Fabaceae or Leguminosae, commonly known as the legume, pea, or bean family, are a large and agriculturally important family of flowering plants.
• The family Fabaceae includes a number of plants that are common in agriculture including Glycine max (soybean), Phaseolus (beans), Pisum sativum (pea), Cicer arietinum (chickpeas or grams), Vicia faba (broad bean), Medicago sativa (alfalfa), Arachis hypogaea (peanut), Ceratonia siliqua (carob), Trigonella foenum-graecum (fenugreek), and Glycyrrhiza glabra (liquorice).

EASY

ENVIRONMENT – BIODIVERSITY

30. Consider the following statements :

Statement-I: The Indian Flying Fox is placed under the “vermin” category in the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.

Statement-II : The Indian Flying Fox feeds on the blood of other animals.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans. (c)

Indian flying fox

• Also known as fruit bats, the nectar and fruit-eating flying fox (Pteropus giganteus) is generally considered a vermin as they raid orchards.
• It had a similar official status under the Schedule V of the Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972 until it was put on the Schedule II list, entailing a higher degree of protection.
• As a keystone species causing seed dispersals of many plants in tropical systems, the flying fox has fascinated zoologists over the years.
• It survives only on fruits

CURRENT AFFAIRS AUGUST 2023

Flying fox bats for vigilance while day-roosting, finds study

https://epaper.thehindu.com/articleshare?articleurl=https%3A%2F%2Fepaper.thehindu.com%2Fccidist-ws%2Fth%2Fth_delhi%2Fissues%2F47535%2FOPS%2FGBUBK36UO.1%2BGFHBK37PG.1.html

EASY

GEOGRAPHY – CLIMATOLOGY

31. Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation.

Statement-II: Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave radiation.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans. (d)

EASY

GEOGRAPHY – CLIMATOLOGY

32. Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared to poles.

Statement-II: At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans. (a)

EASY

GEOGRAPHY – GEOMORPHOLOGY

33. Consider the following :

1. Pyroclastic debris
2. Ash and dust
3. Nitrogen compounds
4. Sulphur compounds

How many of the above are products of volcanic eruptions ?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Ans. (d)

EASY

GEOGRAPHY – CLIMATOLOGY

34. Which of the following is/are correct inference/inferences from isothermal maps in the month of January ?
35. The isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent.
36. The presence of cold ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift make the North Atlantic Ocean colder and the isotherms bend towards the north.

Select the answer using the code given below :

• 1 only
• 2 only
• Both 1 and 2
• Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (a)

The presence of warm ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift make the North Atlantic Ocean colder and the isotherms bend towards the north.

EASY

GEOGRAPHY – CLIMATOLOGY

35. Which of the following countries are well known as the two largest cocoa producers in the world ?

(a) Algeria and Morocco

(b) Botswana and Namibia

(c) Côte d’Ivoire and Ghana

(d) Madagascar and Mozambique

Ans. (c)

About 70 percent of the world’s cocoa beans come from four West African countries: Ivory Coast, Ghana, Nigeria and Cameroon.

The Ivory Coast and Ghana are by far the two largest producers of cocoa, accounting for more than 50 percent of the world´s cocoa.

EASY

GEOGRAPHY – INDIAN RIVERS

36. With reference to the Himalayan rivers joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj from West to East, which one of the following sequences is correct ?

(a) Ghaghara – Gomati-Gandak –Kosi

(b) Gomati- Ghaghara -Gandak –Kosi

(c) Ghaghara -Gomati Kosi -Gandak

(d) Gomati -Ghaghara – Kosi-Gandak

Ans. (b)

MEDIUM

GEOGRAPHY – GEOMORPHOLOGY

37. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Rainfall is one of the reasons for weathering of rocks.

Statement-II: Rain water contains carbon dioxide in solution.

Statement-III: Rain water contains atmospheric oxygen.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I

(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement-I

(d) Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct

Ans. (a)

Rain is due to condensation of water droplets in the atmosphere. It does not contain any dissolved salts like ordinary water. Therefore rain water can dissolve more amount of oxygen than ordinary water. Moreover rain water is in contact with atmospheric air. Hence, it contains more percentage of oxygen.

Chemical weathering describes the process of chemicals in rainwater making changes to the minerals in a rock. Carbon dioxide from the air is dissolved in rainwater, making it slightly acidic. A reaction can occur when the rainwater comes into contact with minerals in the rock, causing weathering.

MEDIUM

GEOGRAPHY – MAPPING

38. Consider the following countries:

1. Finland
2. Germany
3. Norway
4. Russia

How many of the above countries have a border with the North Sea?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Ans. (b)

MEDIUM

GEOGRAPHY – MAPPING

39. Consider the following information:

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans. (a)

Only pair 2 is correct

MEDIUM

GEOGRAPHY – GEOMORPHOLOGY

40. Consider the following information:

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) Only one                            (b) Only two

(c) Only three                          (d) All four

Ans. (b)

MEDIUM

ENVIRONMENT – BIODIVERSITY

41. The organisms “Cicada, Froghopper and Pond skater” are:

(a) Birds

(b) Fish

(c) Insects

(d) Reptiles

Ans. (c)

CURRENT AFFAIRS 22 October 2023

Periodical cicada emergence disrupts food webs

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/commonly-found-cicada-species-sheds-its-foreign-tag-to-embrace-an-indian-identity/article67087350.ece

EASY

ENVIRONMENT – POLLUTION

42. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Many chewing gums found in the market are considered source of environmental pollution

Statement-II: Many chewing gums contain plastic as gum base.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans. (a)

Chewing gum has three main components that make up its gum bases: resin, wax, and elastomer. Resin (ex. terpene) is the main chewable portion. Wax softens the gum. Elastomers add flexibility.

DIFFICULT

ENVIRONMENT – BIODIVERSITY

43. Consider the following pairs:

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans. (d)

Indri

• The indri, also called the babakoto, is one of the largest living lemurs native to Madagascar.
• It is a diurnal tree-dweller, monogamous and lives in small family groups, moving through the canopy, and is herbivorous, feeding mainly on leaves but also seeds, fruits, and flowers.
• The groups are quite vocal, communicating with other groups by singing, roaring and other vocalisations.
• Besides humans, it is the only mammal found that can use rhythm.

Elk

• The elk or wapiti, is the second largest species within the deer family, Cervidae, and one of the largest terrestrial mammals in its native range of North America and Central and East Asia.

Bonobo

• The bonobo, also historically called the pygmy chimpanzee, are native to Congo region of Central America.

MEDIUM

INTERNATIONAL ORGANISATIONS

44. Consider the following statements regarding World Toilet Organization:

1. It is one of the agencies of the United Nations.
2. World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day and World Toilet College are the initiatives of this organization, to inspire action to tackle the global sanitation crisis.
3. The main focus of its function is to grant funds to the least developed countries and developing countries to achieve the end of open defecation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 2 and 3

Ans. (a)

CURRENT AFFAIRS 17 November 2023

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1977601

World Toilet Organization

• It is a global non-profit organization whose goal is to improve toilet and sanitation conditions worldwide.
• It was founded in 2001 with 15 members and has now grown to 151 member organizations in 53 countries.
• It is also the organizer of the World Toilet Summit, the Urgent Run and initiated the United Nations World Toilet Day.
• It started the World Toilet College (WTC) in 2005 as a social enterprise in Singapore, to address the gap in education and training around sanitation topics.

World Toilet Day

• It is celebrated on 19th November every year.
• It aims to help break taboos around toilets and make sanitation for all a global development priority.
• The United Nations also officially recognizes this day due to the need to raise awareness about the world’s sanitation crisis
• Dr. Jack Sim, Founder, World Toilet Organisation was present in Delhi for World Toilet Day 2023.
• He shared the global experience of managing public toilets and basic issue involved in public toilets and summarised it through ABC: Architecture, Behavior, Cleaning.

DIFFICULT

ENVIRONMENT – BIODIVERSITY

45. Consider the following statements:

1. Lions do not have a particular breeding season.
2. Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar.
3. Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by scent marking.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (a)

• Lions do not have a particular breeding season. Lions do not mate at a specific time of year, and the females are polyestrous, meaning they can come into heat multiple times a year.
• Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar because they have a one-piece hyoid bone, unlike lions, tigers, leopards, and jaguars, which have a two-piece hyoid bone that allows them to roar.
• Male leopards do proclaim their territory by scent marking, using methods such as spraying urine, clawing trees, and rubbing their cheeks against objects.

MEDIUM

AGRICULTURE

46.  Which one of the following is the correct description of “100 Million Farmers”?

• It is a platform for accelerating the transition towards food and water systems that are net-zero (carbon), nature-positive and that aims to increase farmer resilience.
• It is an international alliance and a network of individuals and farming organisations interested in supporting and strengthening the development of the organic animal husbandry.
• It is a digital platform fully integrated with service providers and built on blockchain that lets buyers, sellers and third parties trade fertilizers quickly and securely.
• It is a platform with the mission of encouraging the farmers to form Farmer Product Organisations or Agribusiness Consortiums, thus facilitating the access to global open markets to sell their products.

Ans. (a)

100 Million Farmers

• It is an initiative of World Economic Forum (WEF).
• It supports a global agenda for the adoption of regenerative agriculture and climate adaptation practices at the farm level.
• It is a platform supporting private and public leaders to position food and farmers as central pillars on the global climate and nature agenda, and accelerate collective action to scale climate-and nature-friendly agricultural practices.

MEDIUM

S&T – ENERGY

47. Consider the following:

1. Battery storage
2. Biomass generators
3. Fuel cells
4. Rooftop solar photovoltaic units

How many of the above are considered “Distributed Energy Resources” ?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Ans. (d)

Distributed energy resources (DER)

• It refers to often smaller generation units that are located on the consumer’s side of the meter.
• Examples of distributed energy resources that can be installed include:

1. roof top solar photovoltaic units
2. wind generating units

• battery storage

1. batteries in electric vehicles used to export power back to the grid
2. combined heat and power units, or tri-generation units that also utilise waste heat to provide cooling
3. biomass generators, which are fuelled with waste gas or industrial and agricultural by-products.

• open and closed cycle gas turbines
• reciprocating engines (diesel, oil)

1. hydro and mini-hydro schemes
2. fuel cells.

MEDIUM

ENVIRONMENT – BIODIVERSITY

48. Which one of the following shows a unique relationship with an insect that has coevolved with it and that is the only insect that can pollinate this tree?

(a) Fig

(b) Mahua

(c) Sandalwood

(d) Silk cotton

Ans. (a)

Fig wasp is the only insect that can pollinate fig tree. This relationship is a classic example of coevolution, where both species have evolved together to become mutually dependent.

MEDIUM

ENVIRONMENT – BIODIVERSITY

49. Consider the following:

1. Butterflies
2. Fish
3. Frogs

How many of the above have poisonous species among them?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans. (c)

The Monarch butterfly is poisonous to birds, but they are not dangerous to humans.

Species of puffer fish (the family Tetraodontidae) are the most poisonous in the world, and the second most poisonous vertebrate after the golden dart frog.

EASY

ENVIRONMENT – BIODIVERSITY

50. Consider the following:

1. Cashew
2. Papaya
3. Red sanders

How many of the above trees are actually native to India ?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans. (a)

Cashew is native to South America

Papaya is native to Central America

Red Sanders (also known as Red Sandalwood) is native to Andhra Pradesh.

EASY

CURRENT AFFAIRS – INTERNATIONAL

51. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: There is instability and worsening situation in the Sahel region.

Statement-II: There have been military takeover/coups d’état in several countries of the Sabel region in the recent past.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-l and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct., but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-l is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans. (a)

EASY

CURRENT AFFAIRS – BILATERAL

52. Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : India does not import apples from the United States of America.

Statement-II: In India, the law prohibits the import of Genetically Modified food without the approval of the competent authority.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans. (d)

CURRENT AFFAIRS September 2023

Kashmir Valley’s growers are anxious as import duty is relaxed on American apples

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/kashmir-valleys-growers-are-anxious-as-import-duty-is-relaxed-on-american-apples/article67295732.ece

The Union government’s decision to relax 20% customs duty on apples imported from the U.S. at the recently concluded G-20 summit left orchardists in the Kashmir Valley jittery. 

EASY

POLITY – PARLIAMENT

53. With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lak Sabha under consideration

1. He/She shall not preside.
2. He/She shall not have the right to speak.
3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (a)

While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lak Sabha under consideration

He/She shall not preside

He/She shall have the right to speak.

He/She shall be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance; and not casting vote in case of a tie.

EASY

POLITY – PARLIAMENT

54. With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements :

1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.
2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only                     (b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3                   (d) 3 only

Ans. (b)

EASY

POLITY – PARLIAMENT

55. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements :

1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session.
3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) l only                      (b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3                   (d) 3 only

Ans. (c)

Prorogation of a House by the President of India requires the advice of the Council of Ministers.

EASY

CURRENT AFFAIRS – INTERNATIONAL

56. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The European Parliament approved The Net-Zero Industry Act recently.

Statement-II: The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore aims to develop all of its own clean technology by that time.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans. (c)

The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2050 and therefore aims to develop all of its own clean technology by that time.

EASY

CURRENT AFFAIRS – INTERNATIONAL

57. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Recently, Venezuela has achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis and succeeded in preventing its people from fleeing/emigrating to other countries.

Statement-II: Venezuela has the world’s largest oil reserves.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans. (d)

MEDIUM

CURRENT AFFAIRS – SOCIAL – SCHEMES

58. With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements:

1. To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding.
2. Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitised.
3. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) l and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) l and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (d)

CURRENT AFFAIRS December 2023

Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme (DILRMP)

• It was earlier known as National Land Record Modernization Programme, which has been revamped and converted as a Central Sector Scheme with effect from 1st April, 2016 with 100% funding by the Centre.
• Its achievements include:

1. 08 per cent Record of Rights (RoR) have been completed (6,25,062 villages out of total 6,57,396 villages in the country),
2. 02 percent Cadastral Maps have been digitized
3. 95 per cent Computerization of Registration completed
4. 48 per cent Integration of Sub Registrar offices(SROs) with Land Records have been completed

• Government has approved extension of DILRMP for a period of five years i.e 2021-22 to 2025-26.
• Two new components have been added to DILRMP:

1. Consent –based integration of Aadhaar number with the land record database
2. Computerization of Revenue Courts and their integration with land records

• Government with the technical support of Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) Pune, has undertaken an initiative to transliterate the Records of Rights available in local language to any of the 22 Schedule VIII languages of the Constitution.

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1989671

MEDIUM

CURRENT AFFAIRS – SOCIAL – SCHEMES

59. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan’, consider the following statements:

1. This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility.
2. Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialties can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) l only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither l nor 2

Ans. (b)

Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan does not provide six months of post-delivery healthcare services.

MEDIUM

CURRENT AFFAIRS – SOCIAL – SCHEMES

60. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements:

1. The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme is 21 to 40 years.
2. Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary.
3. Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of 3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years.
4. Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1,2 and 4

Ans. (b)

Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana

• It was launched in February 2019.
• The scheme is meant for old age protection and social security of Unorganised Workers (UW).
• Eligibilty: Entry age between 18 and 40 years and Monthly Income Rs 15000 or below.
• It is a voluntary and contributory pension scheme, under which the subscriber would receive a minimum assured pension of Rs 3000/- per month after attaining the age of 60 years.
• If the subscriber dies, the spouse of the beneficiary shall be entitled to receive 50% of the pension as family pension. Family pension is applicable only to spouse.

EASY

CURRENT AFFAIRS – SOCIAL – SCHEMES

61. Consider the following statements regarding Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam’:

1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.
2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Ans. (c)

Provisions will come into effect from the time of official notification after delimitation.

EASY

CURRENT AFFAIRS – DEFENCE

62. Which of the following statements about Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023 are correct?

1. This was a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh.
2. It commenced in Aundh (Pune).
3. Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a goal of this operation.
4. Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1,2 and 3

(b) 1,2 and 4

(c) 1,3 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (d)

Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023 was a joint military exercise between India and Sri Lanka

EASY

POLITY – FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS

63. A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:

(a) a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.

(b) the Parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition.

(c) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.

(d) the Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy.

Ans. (c)

MEDIUM

POLITY – STATES

64. Consider the following statements:

1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.
2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (b)

It is the President of India who recognizes and declares any community as a Scheduled Tribe, based on the recommendations of the respective state governments.

EASY

POLITY – PARLIAMENT

65. With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements:

1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.
2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither l nor 2

Ans. (b)

The President of India lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.

EASY

CURRENT AFFAIRS – BOOKS

66. Who of the following is the author of the books “The India Way” and “Why Bharat Matters”?

(a) Bhupender Yadav

(b) Nalin Mehta

(c) Shashi Tharoor

(d) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar

Ans. (d)

Why Bharat Matters is a 2024 non-fictional book written by Indian politician and author S. Jaishankar.

Mr. Jaishankar is the incumbent Minister of External Affairs of the Government of India.

MEDIUM

CURRENT AFFAIRS – INTERNATIONAL

67. Consider the following pairs :

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) All three pairs

(d) None of the pairs

Ans. (b)

Pair 1 and 2 are correct

Turkey did not rescind its membership of NATO.

MEDIUM

CURRENT AFFAIRS – INTERNATIONAL

68. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Sumed pipeline is Persian Gulf a strategic route for oil and natural gas shipments to Europe.

Statement-II : Sumed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans. (a)

The Sumed Pipeline is an oil pipeline in Egypt, running from the Ain Sokhna terminal in the Gulf of Suez, the northernmost terminus of the Red Sea, to offshore Sidi Kerir port, Alexandria in the Mediterranean Sea.

MEDIUM

GEOGRAPHY – MAPPING

69. Consider the following statements

1. The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form.
2. No water enters the Red Sea from rivers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (c)

The Red Sea is a sea inlet of the Indian Ocean, lying between Africa and Asia. Its connection to the ocean is in the south, through the Bab-el-Mandeb strait and the Gulf of Aden.

EASY

ENVIRONMENT – POLLUTION

70. According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), which one of the following is the largest source of sulphur dioxide emissions?

(a) Locomotives using fossil fuels

(b) Ships using fossil fuels

(c) Extraction of metals from ores

(d) Power plants using fossil fuels

Ans. (d)

EASY

POLITY – INTRODUCTION

71. Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?

(a) C. Rajagopalachari

(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(c) T. T. Krishnamachari

(d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

Ans. (d)

MEDIUM

POLITY – INTRODUCTION

72. With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:

1. It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States.
2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither l nor 2

Ans (a)

Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal executive

EASY

HISTORY – CULTURE – LITERATURE

73. Which one of the following is a work attributed to playwright Bhasa?

(a) Kavyalankara

(b) Natyashastra

(c) Madhyama-vyayoga

(d) Mahabhashya

Ans. (c)

DIFFICULT

HISTORY – CULTURE – JAINISM & BUDDHISM

74. Sanghabhuti, an Indian Buddhist monk, who travelled to China at the end of the fourth century AD, was the author of a commentary on:

(a) Prajnaparamita Sutra

(b) Visuddhimagga

(c) Sarvastivada Vinaya

(c) Lalitavistara

Ans. (c)

EASY

HISTORY – CULTURE – ARCHITECTURE

75. Consider the following properties included in the World Heritage List released by UNESCO:

1. Shantiniketan
2. Rani-ki-Vav
3. Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas
4. Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya

How many of the above properties were included in 2023?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Ans. (b)

EASY

POLITY – AMENDMENTS

76. As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:

1. Addition
2. Variation
3. Repeal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) l and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (d)

EASY

CURRENT AFFAIRS – INTERNATIONAL

77. Consider the following countries:

1. Italy
2. Japan
3. Nigeria
4. South Korea
5. South Africa

Which of the above countries are frequently mentioned in the media for their low birth rates, or ageing population or declining population?

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1, 3 and 5

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 3 and 5 only

Ans. (a)

According to data from Eurostat, Italy is the oldest country in the European Union, with an average median age of above 48.

Declining birth rates and better survival odds for older people have significantly aged Italy’s population.

In fact, two thirds of the world’s countries now have childbirth rates below the replacement rate. Japan is low, China is low, South Korea is the lowest in the world.

MEDIUM

POLITY – PARLIAMENT

78. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?

1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.
2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) l and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Ans. (c)

Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha may not be accepted by the Lok Sabha.

DIFFICULT

INDIA YEAR BOOK

79. Which of the following is/are correctly matched in terms of equivalent rank in the three services of Indian Defence forces ?

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 4

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 3 only

Ans.(d)

MEDIUM

POLITY – CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES

80. The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?

1. Governor of the Constituent State
2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State
3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
4. The Home Minister of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1,2 and 3 only

(b) 1,3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (d)

MEDIUM

ECONOMY – MONEY MARKET

81. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I : If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury

Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment.

Statement-II: The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans. (d)

If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury

Bonds can exercise their claims to receive payment, but will be unable to receive payments,

The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government.

MEDIUM

ECONOMY – BANKING

82. Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : Syndicated lending spreads the risk of borrower default across multiple lenders.

Statement-II : The syndicated loan can be a fixed amount/lumpsum of funds, but cannot be a credit line.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans. (c)

Syndicated loan

• It is a form of financing that is offered by a group of lenders.
• Syndicated loans arise when a project requires too large a loan for a single lender or when a project needs a specialized lender with expertise in a specific asset class.
• Syndicating allows lenders to spread risk and take part in financial opportunities that may be too large for their individual capital base.
• Lenders are referred to as a syndicate, which works together to provide funds for a single borrower.
• The borrower can be a corporation, a large project, or a sovereign government.
• The loan can involve a fixed amount of funds, a credit line, or a combination of the two.

MEDIUM

ECONOMY – BANKING

83. Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee:

1. It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in alignment with its monetary policy.
2. It appears as a liability on the RBI’s balance sheet.
3. It is insured against inflation by its very design.
4. It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) l and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Ans. (d)

 MEDIUM

HISTORY – CULTURE –JAINISM & BUDDHISM

84. With reference to ancient India, Gautama Buddha was generally known by which of the following epithets ?

1. Nayaputta
2. Shakyamuni
3. Tathagata

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None of the above are epithets of Gautama Buddha

Ans. (b)

Surviving early Jain and Buddhist literature uses several names (or epithets) for Mahavira, including Nayaputta, Muni, Samana, Nigantha, Brahman, and Bhagavan.

Epithets for Buddha include Shakyamuni and Tathagata

Tathagata (“the perfect one”), lit. the one who has “thus gone”, or “thus come”, is an epithet of the Buddha used by him when speaking of himself.

MEDIUM

HISTORY – ANCIENT

85. Consider the following information :

In which of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 4

Ans. (b)

MEDIUM

HISTORY – MEDIEVAL

86. Who of the following rulers of medieval India gave permission to the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal?

(a) Krishnadevaraya

(b) Narasimha Saluva

(c) Muhammad Shah III

(d) Yusuf Adil Shah

Ans. (a)

Sri Krishnadevaraya

• Sri Krishnadevaraya in 1510 signed a treaty with the Portuguese.
• It permitted Albuquerque to construct forts in Bhatkal. 
• Domingo Paes and Barbosa,Portuguese travellers visited his court in 1520.
• Krishnadevaraya maintained friendly relations with the Portuguese.
• He also helpedthe Portuguese to conquer Goa from Bijapur in 1510.

EASY

HISTORY – MODERN

87. With reference to revenue collection by, Cornwallis, consider the following statements:

1. Under the Ryotwari Settlement of revenue collection, the peasants were exempted from revenue payment in case of bad harvests or natural calamities.
2. Under the Permanent Settlement in Bengal, if the Zamindar failed to pay his revenues to the state, on or before the fixed date, he would be removed from his Zamindari.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (b)

MEDIUM

HISTORY – CULTURE – RELIGION

88. Consider the following statements:

1. There are no parables in Upanishads.
2. Upanishads were composed earlier than the Puranas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (b)

Statement 1 is incorrect: Upanishads are known for their philosophical dialogues and teachings, and they often employ allegories and parables to convey complex ideas. For example, the Chandogya Upanishad contains the well-known parable of ‘Satyakama Jabala’ and his search for truth.

Statement 2 is correct: Upanishads form the concluding part of the Vedas and are known as ‘Vedanta’ (the end of the Vedas). They are believed to have been composed between 800-500 BCE. Puranas, on the other hand, are a later genre of Hindu texts, composed from around the 3rd century CE onwards

MEDIUM

CURRENT AFFAIRS – INTERNATIONAL

89. Consider the following statements:

1. India is a member of the International Grains Council.
2. A country needs to be a member of the International Grains Council for exporting or importing rice and wheat.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (a)

A country can’t be stopped from exporting or importing if it is not a member of the International Grains Council.

International Grains Council

• It was founded in 1949 as the International Wheat Council.
• International Grains Agreement came into effect in 1995 and the council was renamed.
• The definition of “grains” was formally expanded to include rice (1 July 2009) and oilseeds (1 July 2013).
• It is headquartered in London.
• As of April 2020 its membership comprises 11 producing members and 18 importing members.
• India is an exporting member.

EASY

HISTORY – CULTURE – INTANGIBLE HERITAGE

90. Which one of the following was the latest inclusion in the Intangible Cultural Heritage List of UNESCO?

(a) Chhau dance

(b) Durga puja

(c) Garba dance

(d) Kumbh mela

Ans. (c)

MEDIUM

POLITY – ELECTIONS

91. How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?

(a) One

(b) Two

(c) Three

(d) Four

Ans. (d)

In India, Delimitation Commissions has been constituted 4 times – in 1952, 1963, 1973 and in 2002.

EASY

POLITY – INTRODUCTION

92. The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages ?

1. Konkani
2. Manipuri
3. Nepali
4. Maithili

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 1,3 and 4

(d) 3 and 4

Ans. (a)

EASY

POLITY – ELECTIONS

93. Consider the following pairs :

How many of the above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Ans. (b)

Only 1 and 3 are correctly paired

EASY

POLITY – INTRODUCTION

94. Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India?

1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.
2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (d)

Powers of the Panchayats           –  Part IX

Powers of the Municipalities      –  Part IX A

Cooperative Societies                 –  Part IX B

Emergency provisions                –  Part XVIII

Amendment of the Constitution –  Part XX

EASY

POLITY – CENTRE–STATE RELATIONS

95. Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?

(a) Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.

(b) Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.

(c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.

(d) Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List.

Ans. (c)

Inter-State trade and commerce, Inter-State migration, Inter-State quarantine and Corporation tax are Union subjects under Union List.

EASY

POLITY – FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS

96. Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?

(a) Article 15

(b) Article 16

(c) Article 19

(d) Article 21

Ans. (d)

EASY

CURRENT AFFAIRS – DEFENCE

97. What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs?

1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee
2. Exercise military command over the Service Chiefs
3. Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-services matters.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Ans (d)

Chief of Defence Staff

• The post was created in 2019.
• He is the Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee and acts as the Principal Military Adviser to Raksha Mantri on all tri-service matters.

EASY

CURRENT AFFAIRS – DEFENCE

98. Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called :

(a) Operation Sankalp

(b) Operation Maitri

(c) Operation Sadbhavana

(d) Operation Madad

Ans. (c)

Operation Sadbhavana

• It was officially launched in 1998, especially in rural areas near the Line of Control (LOC) where insurgency and militancy had caused destruction to property and a sense of alienation among the people of Jammu and Kashmir from the rest of India.
• Operation Sadbhavana (Goodwill) was in news in February 2023 as a unique humane initiative undertaken by Indian Army in Ladakh.

EASY

GEOGRAPHY – MAPPING

99. The longest border between any two countries in the world is between:

(a) Canada and the United States of America

(b) Chile and Argentina

(c) China and India

(d) Kazakhstan and Russian Federation

Ans. (a)

The international land border between the United States and Canada is the longest in the world at almost 8,900 kilometers. It includes the border between Canada and the continental U.S. as well as the border between Alaska and northern Canada

EASY

POLITY – PARLIAMENT

100. Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?

1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee.
2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.
3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) l and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) l and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and3

Ans. (c)