PYQP - Polity Introduction (2016-2024) - Best UPSC CSE coaching Institute

POLITY – Introduction

UPSC – CSE Prelims 2024

POLITY – INTRODUCTION

Q1). Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?

(a) C. Rajagopalachari

(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

POLITY – INTRODUCTION

Q2). The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?

1. Konkani

2. Manipuri

3. Nepali

4. Maithili

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 3 and 4

POLITY – INTRODUCTION

Q3). Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India?

1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.

2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.

3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

POLITY – INTRODUCTION

Q4). With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:

1. It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States.

2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither l nor 2

POLITY – STATES

Q5). Consider the following statements:

1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.

2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

POLITY – FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS

Q6). A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:

(a) a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.

(b) the Parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition.

(d) the Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy.

POLITY – FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS

Q7). Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?

(a) Article 15

(b) Article 16

(d) Article 21

Q8). With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lak Sabha under consideration

1. He/She shall not preside.

2. He/She shall not have the right to speak.

3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

POLITY – PARLIAMENT

Q9). With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements :

1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.

2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2

POLITY – PARLIAMENT

Q10). With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:

1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.

2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session.

3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) l only (b) 1 and 2

POLITY – PARLIAMENT

Q11). With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements:

1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.

2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

POLITY – PARLIAMENT

Q12). Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?

1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee.

2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.

3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) l and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

POLITY – PARLIAMENT

Q13). Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?

1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.

2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.

3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.

4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) l and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4

POLITY – AMENDMENTS

Q14). As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India,

the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:

1. Addition

2. Variation

3. Repeal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) l and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

POLITY – CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES

Q15). The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?

1. Governor of the Constituent State

2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State

3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India

4. The Home Minister of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1,2 and 3 only (b) 1,3 and 4 only

POLITY – ELECTIONS

Q16). Consider the following pairs :

Party Its Leader

1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee

2. Socialist Party C. Rajagopalachari

3. Congress for Democracy Jagjivan Ram

4. Swatantra Party Acharya Narendra Dev

How many of the above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

POLITY – ELECTIONS

Q17). How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?

(a) One

(b) Two

(d) Four

POLITY – CENTRE–STATE RELATIONS

Q18). Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?

(a) Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.

(b) Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.

(d) Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List.

UPSC – CSE Prelims 2023

INDIAN POLITY – Introduction to Constitution

Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day:

Statement-I: Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.

Statement-II: On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect Statement-II is correct

INDIAN POLITY – Introduction to Constitution

Q.2) Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the Constitution’ of a country?

(a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.

(b) It enables the creation of political offices and a government.

(d) It secures social justice, social equality and social security.

INDIAN POLITY – Fundamental Rights

Q.3) In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean?

(a) The principle of natural justice

(b) The procedure established by law

(d) Equality before law

INDIAN POLITY – Fundamental Duties

Q.4) Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002:

Statement-I : One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm x 400 mm.

Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect Statement-II is correct

INDIAN POLITY – President

Q.5) Consider the following statements :

1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.

2. Elections for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.

3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

INDIAN POLITY – Parliament

Q.6) With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament Money the following statements:

1. When the Lok Sabha transmits the Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.

2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.

3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for the Finance Bill.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

INDIAN POLITY – Judiciary

Q.7) Consider the following statements:

Statement-I : The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.

Statement-II : Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

INDIAN POLITY – Amendments to the Constitution

Q.8) In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights?

(a) 1st Amendment

(b) 42nd Amendment

(d) 86th Amendment

INDIAN POLITY – Centre-State Relations

Q.9) Consider the following statements

Statement-I : In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.

Statement-II : In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-I1 is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

INDIAN POLITY – Constitutional Bodies

Q.10) Consider the following:

1. Demographic performance

2. Forest and ecology

3. Governance reforms

4.Stable government

5. Tax and fiscal efforts

For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(d) All five

INDIAN POLITY – Extra Constitutional Bodies

Q11) Consider the following organizations/ bodies in India :

1. The National Commission for Backward Classes

2. The National Human Rights Commission

3. The National Law Commission

4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission

How many of the above are constitutional bodies?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

INDIAN POLITY – Scheduled Areas

Q.12) With reference to ‘Scheduled Areas’ in India, consider the following statements:

1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.

2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.

3. The Chief Ministers of concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

INDIAN POLITY – PRESIDENT

Q.13) Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India:

1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.

2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.

3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.

4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

INDIAN POLITY – CENTRE-STATE RELATIONS

Q.14) Consider the following statements:

1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.

2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.

3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

UPSC – CSE Prelims 2022

POLITY

Q.1) Consider the following statements:

1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.

2. The constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.

3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.

4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1, 2 and 4

c. 3 and 4 only

d. 3 only

Q.2) With reference to India, Consider the following statements:

1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyer and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.

2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.3) Consider the following statements:

1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.

2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.

3. A constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Q.4) Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. cabinet Minister, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.

2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.5) Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?

1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency

2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers

3. To impeach the President of India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a. 1 and 2

b. 2 only

c. 1 and 3

d. 3 only

Q.6) With reference to anti-defection low in India, consider the following statements:

1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.

2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.7) Consider the following statements:

1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the parliament of India.

2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.8) With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:

1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organization unless it is entrusted with a public duty.

2. Mandamus will not lie against a company even though it may be a Government Company.

3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the write of Quo Warranto.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Q.9) With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha consider the following statements.

1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the speaker may fix.

2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.

3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.

4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a. 1 and 3 only

b. 1, 2 and 3

c. 3 and 4 only

d. 2 and 4 only

Q.10) If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?

a. This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.

b. This would create a local self-governing body in the area.

c. This would convert that area into a Union Territory.

d. The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.

UPSC – CSE Prelims 2021

Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards:

1. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under the Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India.

2. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once.

3. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year.

Which of the above statements are not correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Q.2) Constitutional government means

(A) a representative government of a nation with federal structure

(B) a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers

(D) a government limited by the terms of the Constitution

Q.3) What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950?

(A) A Democratic Republic

(B) A Sovereign Democratic Republic

(D) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic

Q.4) What is the position of the Right to Property in India?

(A) Legal right available to citizens only

(B) Legal right available to any person

(D) Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right

Q.5) Under the Indian Constitution, concentration of wealth violates

(A) the Right to Equality

(B) the Directive Principles of State Policy

(D) the Concept of Welfare

Q.6) “Leaf litter decomposes faster than in any other biome and as a result the soil surface is often almost bare. Apart from trees, the vegetation is largely composed of plant forms that reach up into the canopy vicariously, by climbing the trees or growing as epiphytes, rooted on the upper branches of trees.” This is the most likely description of

(A) coniferous forest

(B) dry deciduous forest

(D) tropical rain forest

Q.7) Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy?

(A) A committed judiciary

(B) Centralization of powers

(D) Separation of powers

Q.8) With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile.

2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.

3. A foreigner once granted the citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(D) 2 and 3

Q.9) Which one of the following best defines the term ‘State’?

(A) A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organized government

(B) A politically organized people of a definite territory and possessing an authority to govern them, maintain law and order, protect their natural rights and safeguard their means of sustenance

(C) A number of persons who have been living in a definite territory for a very long time with their own culture, tradition and government

(D) A society permanently living in a definite territory with a central authority, an executive responsible to the central authority and an independent judiciary

Q.10) Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character?

(A) The independence of judiciary is safeguarded.

(B) The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent u nits.

(D) The Fundamental Rights are enforceable by Courts of Law.

Q.11) A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of application of law violates which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?

(A) Article 14

(B) Article 28

(D) Article 44

Q.12) At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?

(A) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

(B) Ministry, of Panchayati Raj

(D) Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

Q.13) With reference to India, consider the following statements:

When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right.
State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(D) Neither I nor 2

Q.14) With reference to India, consider the following statements:

Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in police station, not in jail.
During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.15) Consider the following statements:

In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
In 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(D) 2 and 3

Q.16) Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India?

(A) Article 15

(B) Article 19

(D) Article 29

Q.17) We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from that model?

As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the Parliament to legislate is limited.
In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (UPSC CSE 2021)

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

UPSC – CSE Prelims 2020

POLITY

Q.1) Consider the following statements:

1. Aadhaar medata cannot be stored for more than three months.

2. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhaar data.

3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products.

4. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1,2 and 3 only

Q.2) Rajya sabha has equal power with Lok Sabha in

(a) the matter of creating new All India Services

(b) amending the Constitution

(d) making cut motions

Q.3) With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme

(MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct?

1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health,

education etc.

2. A specified portion of each MP’s fund must benefit SC/ST populations

3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to

the next year.

4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1,2 and 4 only

Q.4) Which one of the following categories of Fundamental Right incorporates protection against

untouchability as a form of discrimination?

(a) Right against Exploitation

(b) Right to Freedom

(d) Right to Equality

Q.5) In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by

(a) the Preamble of the constitution

(b) a Directive Principle of State Policy

(d) the conventional practice

Q.6) Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also other documents before the Parliament which

include “The Macro Economic Framework Statement. The aforesaid document is presented because

this is mandated by

(a) Long standing parliamentary convention

(b) Article 112 and Article 110(1) of the constitution of India

(d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility

Q.7) A constitutional government by definition is a

(a) government by legislature

(b) popular government

(d) limited government

Q.8) Other than Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the constitution of India

Reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Right (1948)?

1. Preamble

2. Directive Principles of State Policy

3. Fundamental Duties

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.9) In India Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following type of

citizens?

1. Person with an annual income of less than ₹ 1,00,000

2. Transgender with an annual income of less than ₹ 2,00,000

3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OB(C) with an annual income of less than ₹ 3,00,000

4. All Senior Citizens

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

Q.10) A Parliamentary System of Government is on in which

(a) All political parties in the Parliament are represented in the Government

(b) The Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by them

(d) The Government is chosen by the Parliament but cannot be removed by its before completion of a fixed term

Q.11) Which part of the Constitution of India declares the Ideal of Welfare State?

(a) Directive Principles of State Policy

(b) Fundamental Rights

(d) Seventh Schedule

Q.12) Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution of India defines its basic structure in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental

rights and democracy.

2. The Constitution of India provides for Judicial review to safeguard the citizens; liberties and to

preserve the ideals on which the constitution is based.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.13) In the context of India which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for

bureaucracy?

(a) An agency for widening the scope of parliamentary democracy

(b) An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism

(d) An agency for the implementation of public policy

Q.14) The Preamble to the Constitution of India is

(a) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect

(b) not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either

(d) a part of the constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts

Q.15) With reference to the provision contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India, which of the

following statements is/are correct?

1. They shall be enforceable by courts.

2. They shall not be enforceable by any court.

3. The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the State.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Q.16) Consider the following statements:

1. According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a state for six months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that State

2. According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.17) Consider the following statements

1. The President of India can summon a session of the parliament at such a place as he/she thinks fit.

2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year. but it is not

mandatory to conduct all three sessions.

3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

UPSC – CSE Prelims 2019

Q.1) Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?

(a) First Administrative reforms Commission (1966)

(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)

(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)

Q.2) With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a state in India, Consider the following statements:

1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the house at the commencement of the first session of the year.

2. When a state Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.3) The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri

(d) Morarji Desai

Q.4) Consider the following statements:

1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.

2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.

3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.5) Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?

(a) Third Schedule

(b) Fifth Schedule

(d) Twelfth Schedule

Q.6) With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.

2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.7) With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?

(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.

(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.

(c) In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the president of India can declare financial Emergency without the counsel from the cabinet.

(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.

Q.8) Consider the following statements:

1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.

2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.9) Consider the following statements:

1. The- motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.

2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what Constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.

3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.

4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4

RIGHTS

Q.10) In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?

(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers

(b) Absence of restraint

(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully

Q.11) Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice ?

(a) Article 19

(b) Article 21

(d) Article 29

UPSC – CSE Prelims 2018

Polity

Q.1) If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State then :

(a) the Assembly of the state is automatically dissolved

(b) the powers of the legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament

(d) the President can make laws relating to that State

Q.2) Consider the following statements:

1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.

2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognised for the first time in 1969.

3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.3) Consider the following statements:

1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.

2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.4) Consider the following statements:

1. The speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.

2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.5) Consider the following statements:

1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.

2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.6) Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty ? If there are more laws, there is less liberty.

(a) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.

(b) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.

Q.7) Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law”?

1. Limitation of powers

2. Equality before law

3. People’s responsibility to the Government

4. Liberty and civil rights

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.8) With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and report to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation?

(a) Committee on Government Assurances

(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation

(d) Business Advisory Committee.